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QUESTION 1
Packet Filtering Firewalls can also enable access for:
A. only authorized application port or service numbers.
B. only unauthorized application port or service numbers.
C. only authorized application port or ex-service numbers.
D. only authorized application port or service integers.
Correct Answer: A
Firewall rules can be used to enable access for traffic to specific ports or services. “Service numbers” is rather stilted
English but you may encounter these types of wordings on the actual exam — don\\’t let them confuse you.
“Only unauthorized application port or service numbers” is incorrect. Unauthorized ports/services would be blocked in a
properly installed a firewall rather than permitting access.
“Only authorized application port or ex-service numbers” is incorrect. “Ex-service” numbers is a nonsense term meant to
distract you.
“Only authorized application port or service integers.” While service numbers are in fact integers, the more usual (and
therefore better) the answer is either service or “service number.”
References
CBK, p. 464
AIO3, pp. 482 484
QUESTION 2
Which of the following is an example of a connectionless communication protocol?
A. UDP
B. X.25
C. Packet switching
D. TCP
Correct Answer: A
UDP is an example of a connectionless communication protocol, wherein no connection needs to be established before
data can be exchanged.
In telecommunications, connectionless describes communication between two network endpoints in which a message
can be sent from one endpoint to another without prior arrangement. The device at one end of the communication
transmits data addressed to the other, without first ensuring that the recipient is available and ready to receive the data.
Some protocols allow for error correction by requested retransmission. Internet Protocol (IP) and User Datagram
Protocol
(UDP) are connectionless protocols.
Connectionless protocols are also described as stateless because the endpoints have no protocol- defined way to
remember where they are in a “conversation” of message exchanges.
List of connectionless protocols
Hypertext Transfer Protocol
IP
UDP
ICMP
IPX
TIPC
NetBEUI
References:
KRUTZ, Ronald L., and VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security,
John Wiley and Sons, 2001, Chapter 3: Telecommunications and Network Security (page 86).
and
https://secure.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/en/wiki/Connectionless_protocol
QUESTION 3
Related to information security, the guarantee that the message sent is the message received with the assurance that
the message was not intentionally or unintentionally altered is an example of which of the following?
A. integrity
B. confidentiality
C. availability
D. identity
Correct Answer: A
Integrity is the guarantee that the message sent is the message received, and that the message was not intentionally or
unintentionally altered.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L., and VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer
Security, 2001, John Wiley and Sons, Page 60.
QUESTION 4
Which backup method copies only files that have changed since the last full backup, but does not clear the archive bit?
A. Differential backup method.
B. Full backup method.
C. Incremental backup method.
D. Tape backup method.
Correct Answer: A
One of the key items to understand regarding backup is the archive bit. The archive bit is used to determine what files
have been backuped already. The archive bit is set if a file is modified or a new file is created, this indicates to the
backup program that it has to be saved on the next backup. When a full backup is performed the archive bit will be
cleared indicating that the files were backup. This allows backup programs to do an incremental or differential backup
that only backs up the changes to the filesystem since the last time the bit was cleared
Full Backup (or Reference Backup)
A Full backup will backup all the files and folders on the drive every time you run the full backup. The archive bit is
cleared on all files indicating they were all backuped.
Advantages:
All files from the selected drives and folders are backed up to one backup set.
In the event you need to restore files, they are easily restored from the single backup set.
Disadvantages:
A full backup is more time consuming than other backup options.
Full backups require more disk, tape, or network drive space.
Incremental Backup An incremental backup provides a backup of files that have changed or are new since the last incremental backup.
For the first incremental backup, all files in the file set are backed up (just as in a full backup). If you use the same file set to perform an incremental backup later, only the files that have changed are backed up. If you use the same file set for a third backup, only the files that have changed since the second backup are backed up, and so on.
Incremental backup will clear the archive bit.
Advantages:
Backup time is faster than full backups.
Incremental backups require less disk, tape, or network drive space.
You can keep several versions of the same files on different backup sets.
Disadvantages:
In order to restore all the files, you must have all of the incremental backups available.
It may take longer to restore a specific file since you must search more than one backup set to find the latest version of
a file. Differential Backup
A differential backup provides a backup of files that have changed since a full backup was performed. A differential
backup typically saves only the files that are different or new since the last full backup. Together, a full backup and a
differential backup include all the files on your computer, changed and unchanged.
Differential backup does not clear the archive bits.
Advantages:
Differential backups require even less disk, tape, or network drive space than incremental backups.
Backup time is faster than full or incremental backups.
Disadvantages:
Restoring all your files may take considerably longer since you may have to restore both the last differential and full
backup.
Restoring an individual file may take longer since you have to locate the file on either the differential or full backup.
For more info see: http://support.microsoft.com/kb/136621
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L., and VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer
Security, 2001, John Wiley and Sons, Page 69.
QUESTION 5
Which of the following backup methods is most appropriate for off-site archiving?
A. Incremental backup method
B. Off-site backup method
C. Full backup method
D. Differential backup method
Correct Answer: C
The full backup makes a complete backup of every file on the system every time it is run. Since a single backup set is
needed to perform a full restore, it is appropriate for off-site archiving.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L., and VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer
Security, John Wiley, and Sons, 2001, Chapter 3: Telecommunications and Network Security (page 69).
QUESTION 6
What is RAD?
A. A development methodology
B. A project management technique
C. A measure of system complexity
D. Risk-assessment diagramming
Correct Answer: A
RAD stands for Rapid Application Development.
RAD is a methodology that enables organizations to develop strategically important systems faster while reducing development costs and maintaining quality.
RAD is a programming system that enables programmers to quickly build working programs. In general, RAD systems provide a number of tools to help build graphical user interfaces that would normally take a
large development effort.
Two of the most popular RAD systems for Windows are Visual Basic and Delphi. Historically, RAD systems have tended
to emphasize reducing development time, sometimes at the expense of generating in-efficient executable code.
Nowadays, though, many RAD systems produce extremely faster code that is optimized. Conversely, many traditional programming environments now come with a number of visual tools to aid development.
Therefore, the line between RAD systems and other development environments has become blurred.
Reference:
Information Systems Audit and Control Association, Certified Information Systems Auditor 2002 review manual, chapter
6: Business Application System Development, Acquisition, Implementation and Maintenance (page 307)
http://www.webopedia.com
QUESTION 7
What is called a sequence of characters that is usually longer than the allotted number for a password?
A. passphrase
B. cognitive phrase
C. anticipated phrase
D. Real phrase
Correct Answer: A
A passphrase is a sequence of characters that is usually longer than the allotted number for a password.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L., and VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer
Security, 2001, John Wiley and Sons, page 37.
QUESTION 8
Which of the following centralized access control mechanisms is the least appropriate for mobile workers accessing the
corporate network over analog lines?
A. TACACS
B. Call-back
C. CHAP
D. RADIUS
Correct Answer: B
Call-back allows for a distant user connecting into a system to be called back at a number already listed in a database
of trusted users. The disadvantage of this system is that the user must be at a fixed location whose phone number is
known to the authentication server. Being mobile workers, users are accessing the system from multiple locations,
making call-back inappropriate for them.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L., and VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer
Security, John Wiley, and Sons, 2001, Chapter 2: Access control systems (page 44).
QUESTION 9
Which of the following is considered the weakest link in a security system?
A. People
B. Software
C. Communications
D. Hardware
Correct Answer: A
The Answer: People. The other choices can be strengthened and counted on (For the most part) to remain consistent if
properly protected. People are fallible and unpredictable. Most security intrusions are caused by employees. People get
tired, careless, and greedy. They are not always reliable and may falter in following defined guidelines and best
practices. Security professionals must install adequate prevention and detection controls and properly train all systems
users Proper hiring and firing practices can eliminate certain risks. Security Awareness training is key to ensuring
people are aware of risks and their responsibilities.
The following answers are incorrect: Software. Although software exploits are a major threat and cause concern,
people are the weakest point in a security posture. The software can be removed, upgraded, or patched to reduce risk.
Communications. Although many attacks from inside and outside an organization use communication methods such as
the network infrastructure, this is not the weakest point in a security posture. Communications can be monitored,
devices installed, or upgraded to reduce risk and react to attack attempts. Hardware. Hardware components can be a
weakness in a security posture, but they are not the weakest link of the choices provided. Access to hardware can be
minimized by such measures as installing locks and monitoring access in and out of certain areas.
The following reference(s) were/was used to create this question:
Shon Harris AIO v.3 P.19, 107-109
ISC2 OIG 2007, p.51-55
QUESTION 10
Which of the following is the most reliable, secure means of removing data from magnetic storage media such as a
magnetic tape, or a cassette?
A. Degaussing
B. Parity Bit Manipulation
C. Zeroization
D. Buffer overflow
Correct Answer: A
A “Degausser (Otherwise known as a Bulk Eraser) has the main function of reducing to near zero the magnetic flux
stored in the magnetized medium. Flux density is measured in Gauss or Tesla. The operation is speedier than
overwriting and done in one short operation. This is achieved by subjecting the subject in bulk to a series of fields of
alternating polarity and gradually decreasing strength.
The following answers are incorrect: Parity Bit Manipulation. Parity has to do with disk error detection, not data removal.
A bit or series of bits appended to a character or block of characters to ensure that the information received is the same
as the information that was sent.
Zeroization. Zeroization involves overwriting data to sanitize it. It is time-consuming and not foolproof. The potential for
restoration of data does exist with this method. Buffer overflow. This is a detractor. Although many Operating Systems
use a disk buffer to temporarily hold data read from disk, its primary purpose has no connection to data removal. An
overflow goes outside the constraints defined for the buffer and is a method used by an attacker to attempt access to a system. The following reference(s) were/was used to create this question:
Shon Harris AIO v3. pg 908 Reference: What is degaussing.
QUESTION 11
What level of assurance for a digital certificate verifies a user\\’s name, address, social security number, and other
information against a credit bureau database?
A. Level 1/Class 1
B. Level 2/Class 2
C. Level 3/Class 3
D. Level 4/Class 4
Correct Answer: B
Users can obtain certificates with various levels of assurance. Here is a list that describes each of them:
–
Class 1/Level 1 for individuals, intended for email, no proof of identity
For example, level 1 certificates verify electronic mail addresses. This is done through the use of a personal information
number that a user would supply when asked to register. This level of the certificate may also provide a name as well as an
electronic mail address; however, it may or may not be a genuine name (i.e., it could be an alias). This proves that a
human being will reply back if you send an email to that name or email address.
–
Class 2/Level 2 is for organizations and companies for which proof of identity is required
Level 2 certificates verify a user\\’s name, address, social security number, and other information against a credit bureau
database.
– Class 3/Level 3 is for servers and software signing, for which independent verification and checking of identity and
authority is done by the issuing certificate authority
Level 3 certificates are available to companies. This level of the certificate provides photo identification to accompany the
other items of information provided by a level 2 certificate.
–
Class 4 for online business transactions between companies
–
Class 5 for private organizations or governmental security References:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Digital_certificate VeriSign introduced the concept of classes of digital certificates:
Also, see:
Source: TIPTON, Harold F., and KRAUSE, Micki, Information Security Management Handbook, 4th edition (volume 1),
2000, CRC Press, Chapter 3, Secured Connections to External Networks (page 54).
QUESTION 12
What do the ILOVEYOU and Melissa virus attacks have in common?
A. They are both denial-of-service (DOS) attacks.
B. They have nothing in common.
C. They are both masquerading attacks.
D. They are both social engineering attacks.
Correct Answer: C
While a masquerading attack can be considered a type of social engineering, the Melissa and ILOVEYOU viruses are
examples of masquerading attacks, even if it may cause some kind of denial of service due to the webserver being
flooded with messages. In this case, the receiver confidently opens a message coming from a trusted individual, only to
find that the message was sent using the trusted party\\’s identity. Source: HARRIS, Shon, All-In-One CISSP
Certification Exam Guide, McGraw-Hill/Osborne, 2002, Chapter
10: Law, Investigation, and Ethics (page 650).
QUESTION 13
What is electronic vaulting?
A. Information is backed up to tape on an hourly basis and is stored in an on-site vault.
B. Information is backed up to tape on a daily basis and is stored in an on-site vault.
C. Transferring electronic journals or transaction logs to an off-site storage facility
D. A transfer of bulk information to a remote central backup facility.
Correct Answer: D
Electronic vaulting is defined as “a method of transferring bulk information to off-site facilities for backup purposes”.
Remote Journaling is the same concept as electronic vaulting but has to do with journals and transaction logs, not the
actual files. Source: HARRIS, Shon, All-In-One CISSP Certification Exam Guide, McGraw-Hill/Osborne, 2002, chapter
9: Disaster Recovery and Business continuity (page 619).
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