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Table of Contents:

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Exam MB-240: Microsoft Dynamics 365 Field Service: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/learn/certifications/exams/mb-240

Candidates for this exam are Microsoft Dynamics 365 Customer Engagement functional consultants with Field Service expertise. Candidates are responsible for implementing solutions that manage resources that complete the field service lifecycle.

Candidates implement the field service processes designed in collaboration with internal and external teams. This collaboration includes configuring the default administration areas of the Field Service application, deploying the Connected Field Service (IoT) solution and the mobile application, and implementing any additionally needed customizations. Candidates are responsible for the configuration and deployment of the Field Service application in conjunction with the core customer service application.

Candidates must have knowledge of how to configure and customize components of the Field Service application, including configuring services, resources, characteristics, incidents, inventory integration, service agreements, resource scheduling, work orders, service tasks, field service user roles, field service settings, the Connected Field Service (IoT) solution, and configuration of the Field Service Mobile app.

Skills measured

  • Configure field service applications (20-25%)
  • Manage work orders (15-20%)
  • Schedule and dispatch work orders (20-25%)
  • Manage field service mobility (10-15%)
  • Manage inventory and purchasing (10-15%)
  • Manage assets and agreements (10-15%)

Latest updates Microsoft MB-240 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
You are a Dynamics 365 for Field Service scheduler using the Schedule Assistant. You notice the Schedule Assistant
always sets the Default Radius to 25 KM.
Which two options should you choose? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Set the Default Radius Unit to Miles under Field Service Settings, Work Order/Booking section.
B. Set the Default Radius Value to 50 under Scheduling Parameters.
C. Set the Default Radius Value to 50 under Field Service Settings, Work Order/ Booking section.
D. Set the Default Radius Unit to Miles under Scheduling Parameters.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 2
Your company processes a large number of work orders each day. The company wants to ensure the high priority work
orders are dealt with immediately.
You need to configure the schedule board so that bookings are easily visible to the dispatchers.
How can you configure Dynamics Field Services to increase booking visibility?
A. Configure a work order type for high priority issues, to help categorize high priority work order records.
B. Configure an Incident type for high priority incidents on work order records.
C. Configure the status color for a booking status record, to identify high priority work order records.
D. Configure a priority record to allow you to identify high priority work order records.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
You are a Dynamics 365 for Field Service Mobile customizer.
Your mobile technicians indicate that when in offline mode, they do not have access to the same data set that is
available online. Offline mode contains less account and work order data, and users cannot see warehouses.
You need to determine which updates to make within the mobile project so that technicians can see the appropriate
information.
Which three actions should you choose? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Update Synchronization setting to Always Full Sync.
B. Update entity Sync Filter.
C. Update View filters.
D. Update the Max Sync Records setting.
E. Update the entity Mode to Online and Offline.
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 4
As a new start-up field services company, you are looking to streamline your customer service process to provide the
best customer service experience.
Your company has decided to implement Dynamics Field Services as the foundation for its customer service
management processes.
You need to ensure that the cases that the customer service team creates can be quickly and efficiently converted to
work orders (that will minimize the need to add additional information to the work orders) using the out-of-the-box
capabilities.
Which key item do you need to configure before the customer service agents will be able to convert a case to a work
order?
A. Resources
B. Work Order Types
C. Booking Rules
D. Incident Type
Correct Answer: D
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/field-service/configure-incident-types

QUESTION 5
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You are a Dynamics 365 for Field Service system administrator.
You are configuring a new instance of Dynamics 365 for Field Service. The organization needs to automatically
generate work orders based on agreements, and send invoices on a recurring basis by customer.
Solution: You implement the following configuration changes. 1) Create Agreement 2) Define Booking Setup 3) Set
Booking Recurrence 4) Create Invoice Setup 5) Define Invoice Recurrence
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You are a Dynamics 365 for Field Service system administrator.
You are configuring a new instance of Dynamics 365 for Field Service. The organization needs to accurately capture the
cost of work order bookings.
Solution: You implement the following configuration changes:
1) Create Resource Pay Types for regular, holiday, overtime, travel, and breaks.
2) Assign an Hourly Markup percentage to each Resource Pay Type.
3) Assign Resource Pay Types to the applicable Pay Type.
4) Create Business Closures.
5) Create Bookable Resources with Hourly Rates.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
You are a Dynamics 365 Field Service dispatcher using the Scheduling Assistant function.
One of your customers, Adventure Works, does not want one of your resources to be scheduled to work orders going
forward. The resource must be able to be scheduled for other accounts.
How can you achieve this goal?
A. Create a Requirement Resource Preference record for the resource. Set the Preference Type to Restricted and
Cascade to No.
B. Create a Requirement Resource Preference record for the resource. Set the Preference Type to Restricted and
Account to Adventure Works.
C. Select Load the Default Filters on the Schedule Board.
D. Create a Requirement Resource Preference record for the resource.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
You work for a recycling company that provides customers with large compactor units to collect their recyclable
materials. The compactor units are comprised of two separate components: a container to collect the recyclable
materials and a
separate component that compacts the recyclable materials to make them easier to transport.
These containers are expensive, and the components tend to break down frequently, requiring ongoing maintenance
and repairs.
You need to easily track the containers that your company has at each client location and maintain a service history for
each of the sub-components.
A. Configure the customer asset records hierarchically, and maintain service history at the sub-component level.
B. Configure the customer inventory records individually, in order to maintain the service history at the parent
component level.
C. Configure the customer inventory records in a hierarchy, and maintain service history at the sub-component level.
D. Configure the customer asset records hierarchically, and maintain service history at the service account level.
Correct Answer: A
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/field-service/configure-set-up-customer-assets

QUESTION 9
The company has hired a new manager to set up and configure Field Service to automatically schedule work orders to
the most appropriate resource scheduling.
The manager is unable to optimize requirements and bookings related to work orders.
Which three settings are required? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Assign the Field Service-Administrator security role to the RSO user.
B. Add the RSO dispatcher role to a dispatcher.
C. Enable Resource Scheduling Optimization.
D. Set Connect to Maps as Yes.
E. Add RSO to the profile Field Service-Administrator.
Correct Answer: CDE
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/field-service/rso-configuration

QUESTION 10
Contoso, Ltd has just acquired a new company in order to increase the services it offers to its customers. Contoso, Ltd.
wants to ensure that it is able to track all of the stages in its service management workflow, including the services
offered
by the new service company.
You need to configure Dynamics 365 CE for Field Services to ensure that all of the necessary status values are
configured correctly to track your company\\’s unique business process.
Which action must you perform?
A. Edit the existing system status field values.
B. Create the necessary sub-status values.
C. Create the necessary system status values.
D. Create the necessary service task values.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
You are a Field Service resource manager for Contoso, Ltd. and are setting up characteristics for field technicians who
are responsible for repairs on rental equipment.
Work performed on certain types of backhones, trenchers, and excavating equipment requires different attributes to be
identified for proper work order assignment and scheduling.
Which two characteristics are valid? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Certification
B. Approval Status
C. Skill
D. Rating Value
Correct Answer: AC
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/field-service/set-up-bookable-resources#set-up-field-technician-resources

QUESTION 12
You are in charge of setting up the new Dynamics 365 CE Field Services environment for your company.
As the field Service Administrator, you need to configure the field service settings for work orders for your environment.
Which three work order settings can be configured by the Field Service Administrator? Each correct answer presents a
complete solution.
A. Default work order type
B. Auto generate resource requirement for work order
C. Work order invoice creation
D. Default work order completed status
E. Auto generate work order for agreement booking
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 13
You are entering products and services into Dynamics 365 CE Field Services.
You need to ensure that your field technicians can use the products when completing work orders.
Which two field service product types should you configure to allow your technicians to add work order products? Each
correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Product
B. Non Inventory
C. Inventory
D. Service
Correct Answer: CD
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/field-service/create-product-or-service

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Exam MS-101: Microsoft 365 Mobility and Security (beta): https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-ms-101.aspx

Candidates for this exam are Microsoft 365 Enterprise Administrators who take part in evaluating, planning, migrating, deploying, and managing Microsoft 365 services. They perform Microsoft 365 tenant management tasks for an enterprise, including its identities, security, compliance, and supporting technologies.

Candidates have a working knowledge of Microsoft 365 workloads and should have been an administrator for at least one Microsoft 365 workload (Exchange, SharePoint, Skype for Business, Windows as a Service). Candidates also have a working knowledge of networking, server administration, and IT fundamentals such as DNS, Active Directory, and PowerShell

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QUESTION 1
Your network contains an on-premises Active Directory domain.
Your company has a security policy that prevents additional software from being installed on domain controllers.
You need to monitor a domain controller by using Microsoft Azure Advanced Threat Protection (ATP).
What should you do? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. Deploy an Azure ATP sensor, and then configure port mirroring.
B. Deploy an Azure ATP sensor, and then configure detections.
C. Deploy an Azure ATP standalone sensor, and then configure detections.
D. Deploy an Azure ATP standalone sensor, and then configure port mirroring.
Correct Answer: D
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure-advanced-threat-protection/install-atp-step5

QUESTION 2
You need to ensure that user access to Dropbox is authenticated by using a Microsoft 365 identity. The documents
must be protected if the data is downloaded to an untrusted device. What should you do?
A. From the Intune admin center, configure the Conditional access settings.
B. From the Azure Active Directory admin center, configure the Organizational relationships settings.
C. From the Azure Active Directory admin center, configure the Application proxy settings.
D. From the Azure Active Directory admin center, configure the Devices settings.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Your company has 5,000 Windows 10 devices. All the devices are protected by using Windows Defender Advanced
Threat Protection (ATP).
You need to view which Windows Defender ATP alert events have a high severity and occurred during the last seven
days.
What should you use in Windows Defender ATP?
A. the threat intelligence API
B. Automated investigations
C. Threat analytics
D. Advanced hunting
Correct Answer: B
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/security/threat-protection/windows-defender-atp/investigate-
alerts-windows-defender-advanced-threat-protection https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/security/threat-
protection/windows-defender-atp/automated-investigations-windows-defender-advanced-threat-protection

QUESTION 4
You need to ensure that the support technicians can meet the technical requirement for the Montreal office mobile
devices. What is the minimum of dedicated support technicians required?
A. 1
B. 4
C. 7
D. 31
Correct Answer: B
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/mdm/deploy-use/enroll-devices-with-device-enrollment-manager

QUESTION 5
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You need to investigate user activity in Microsoft 365, including from where users signed in, which applications were
used, and increases in activity during the past month. The solution must minimize administrative effort.
Which admin center should you use?
A. Azure ATP
B. Security and Compliance
C. Cloud App Security
D. Flow
Correct Answer: B
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/search-the-audit-log-in-security-and-
compliance

QUESTION 6
Your company has a Microsoft 365 E5 subscription.
Users in the research department work with sensitive data.
You need to prevent the research department users from accessing potentially unsafe websites by using hyperlinks
embedded in email messages and documents. Users in other departments must not be restricted.
What should you do from the Security and Compliance admin center?
A. Create a data loss prevention (DLP) policy that has a Content is shared condition.
B. Modify the default safe links policy.
C. Create a data loss prevention (DLP) policy that has a Content contains condition.
D. Create a new safe links policy.
Correct Answer: D
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/set-up-atp-safe-links-policies#policies-that-
apply-to-specific-email-recipients

QUESTION 7
Your company has a Microsoft 365 tenant.
The company sells products online and processes credit card information.
You need to be notified if a file stored in Microsoft SharePoint Online contains credit card information. The file must be
removed automatically from its current location until an administrator can review its contents.
What should you use?
A. a Security and Compliance data loss prevention (DLP) policy
B. a Microsoft Cloud App Security access policy
C. a Security and Compliance retention policy
D. a Microsoft Cloud App Security file policy
Correct Answer: A
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/data-loss-prevention-policies

QUESTION 8
Your company has a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You need to identify which users performed the following privileged administration tasks: Deleted a folder from the
second-stage Recycle Bin of Microsoft SharePoint Opened a mailbox of which the user was not the owner Reset a user
password
What should you use?
A. Microsoft Azure Activity Directory (Azure AD) audit logs
B. Security and Compliance content search
C. Microsoft Azure Activity Directory (Azure AD) sign-ins
D. Security and Compliance audit log search
Correct Answer: A
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-monitor/platform/activity-logs-overview

QUESTION 9
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You plan to enable Microsoft Azure Information Protection.
You need to ensure that only the members of a group named PilotUsers can protect content.
What should you do?
A. From the AADRM PowerShell module, run the Set-AadrmOnboardingControlPolicy cmdlet.
B. From Azure Information Protection, create a policy.
C. From the AADRM PowerShell module, run the Set-AadrmRoleBasedAdministrator cmdlet.
D. From Azure Information Protection, configure the protection activation status.
Correct Answer: B
References: https://blogs.technet.microsoft.com/kemckinn/2018/05/17/creating-labels-for-azure-information-protection/

QUESTION 10
You plan to use the Security and Compliance admin center to import several PST files into Microsoft 365 mailboxes.
Which three actions should you perform before you import the data? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. From the Exchange admin center, create a public folder.
B. Copy the PST files by using AzCopy.
C. From the Exchange admin center, assign admin roles.
D. From the Microsoft Azure portal, create a storage account that has a blob container.
E. From the Microsoft 365 admin center, deploy an add-in.
F. Create a mapping file that uses the CSV file format.
Correct Answer: BCF
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/use-network-upload-to-import-pst-files

QUESTION 11
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You discover that some external users accessed content on a Microsoft SharePoint site. You modify the SharePoint
sharing policy to prevent sharing outside your organization.
You need to be notified if the SharePoint sharing policy is modified in the future.
Solution: From the Security and Compliance admin center, you create a threat management policy.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
You need to meet the technical requirement for the EU PD. data. What should you create?
A. a retention policy from the Security and Compliance admin center.
B. a retention policy from the Exchange admin center
C. a data loss prevention (DLP) policy from the Exchange admin center
D. a data loss prevention (DLP) policy from the Security and Compliance admin center
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You have a user named User1.
You need to ensure that User1 can place a hold on all mailbox content.
Which role should you assign to User1?
A. eDiscovery Manager from the Security and Compliance admin center
B. compliance management from the Exchange admin center
C. User management administrator from the Microsoft 365 admin center
D. Information Protection administrator from the Azure Active Directory admin center
Correct Answer: A
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/Exchange/permissions/feature-permissions/policy-and-compliance-
permissions?view=exchserver-2019

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Exam MS-100: Microsoft 365 Identity and Services (beta): https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-ms-100.aspx

Candidates for this exam are Microsoft 365 Enterprise Administrators who take part in evaluating, planning, migrating, deploying, and managing Microsoft 365 services. They perform Microsoft 365 tenant management tasks for an enterprise, including its identities,security, compliance, and supporting technologies.

Candidates have a working knowledge of Microsoft 365 workloads and should have been an administrator for at least one Microsoft 365 workload (Exchange, SharePoint, Skype for Business, Windows as a Service). Candidates also have a working knowledge of networking, server administration, and IT fundamentals such as DNS, Active Directory, and PowerShell

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QUESTION 1
To which Azure AD role should you add User4 to meet the security requirement?
A. Password administrator
B. Global administrator
C. Security administrator
D. Privileged role administrator
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Your company has a Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) directory tenant named contoso.onmicrosoft.com.
All users have client computers that run Windows 10 Pro and are joined to Azure AD.
The company purchases a Microsoft 365 E3 subscription.
You need to upgrade all the computers to Windows 10 Enterprise. The solution must minimize administrative effort.
You assign licenses from the Microsoft 365 admin center.
What should you do next?
A. Add a custom domain name to the subscription.
B. Deploy Windows 10 Enterprise by using Windows Autopilot.
C. Create provisioning package, and then deploy the package to all the computers.
D. Instruct all the users to log off of their computer, and then to log in again.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Your company has a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You upload several archive PST files to Microsoft 365 by using the Security and Compliance admin center.
A month later, you attempt to run an import job for the PST files.
You discover that the PST files were deleted from Microsoft 365.
What is the most likely cause of the files being deleted? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the
BEST answer.
A. The PST files were corrupted and deleted by Microsoft 365 security features.
B. PST files are deleted automatically from Microsoft 365 after 30 days.
C. The size of the PST files exceeded a storage quota and caused the files to be deleted.
D. Another administrator deleted the PST files.
Correct Answer: B
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/faqimporting-pst-files-to-office-365

QUESTION 4
You need to meet the application requirement for App1.
Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. From the Azure Active Directory admin center, configure the application URL settings.
B. From the Azure Active Directory admin center, add an enterprise application.
C. On an on-premises server, download and install the Microsoft AAD Application Proxy connector.
D. On an on-premises server, install the Hybrid Configuration wizard.
E. From the Azure Active Directory admin center, configure the Software download settings.
Correct Answer: ABC
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/manage-apps/application-proxy#how-application-
proxy-works

QUESTION 5
You have a Microsoft 365 tenant that contains Microsoft Exchange Online.
You plan to enable calendar sharing with a partner organization named adatum.com. The partner organization also has
a Microsoft 365 tenant.
You need to ensure that the calendar of every user is available to the users in adatum.com immediately.
What should you do?
A. From the Exchange admin center, create a sharing policy.
B. From the Exchange admin center, create a new organization relationship.
C. From the Microsoft 365 admin center, modify the Organization profile settings.
D. From the Microsoft 365 admin center, configure external site sharing.
Correct Answer: B
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/sharing/organization-relationships/create-an-organization-
relationship

QUESTION 6
Your company has an on-premises Microsoft Exchange Server 2013 organization.
The company has 100 users.
The company purchases Microsoft 365 and plans to move its entire infrastructure to the cloud.
The company does NOT plan to sync the on-premises Active Directory domain to Microsoft Azure Active Directory
(Azure AD).
You need to recommend which type of migration to use to move all email messages, contacts, and calendar items to
Exchange Online.
What should you recommend?
A. cutover migration
B. IMAP migration
C. remote move migration
D. staged migration
Correct Answer: A
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/mailbox-migration/cutover-migration-to-office-365

QUESTION 7
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Your company has a Microsoft Office 365 tenant.
You suspect that several Office 365 features were recently updated.
You need to view a list of the features that were recently updated in the tenant.
Solution: You use Message center in the Microsoft 365 admin center.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You suspect that several Microsoft Office 365 applications or services were recently updated.
You need to identify which applications or services were recently updated.
What are two possible ways to achieve the goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. From the Microsoft 365 admin center, review the Message center blade.
B. From the Office 365 Admin mobile app, review the messages.
C. From the Microsoft 365 admin center, review the Products blade.
D. From the Microsoft 365 admin center, review the Service health blade.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 9
Which migration solution should you recommend for Project1?
A. From Exchange Online PowerShell, run the New-MailboxImportRequest cmdlet.
B. From Exchange Online PowerShell, run the New-MailboxExportRequest cmdlet.
C. From Exchange admin center, start the migration and select Remote move migration.
D. From the Microsoft 365 admin center, start a data migration and click Upload PST as the data service.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Your company has a main office and three branch offices. All the branch offices connect to the main office by using a
WAN link. The main office has a high-speed Internet connection. All the branch offices connect to the Internet by using
the
main office connections.
Users use Microsoft Outlook 2016 to connect to a Microsoft Exchange Server mailbox hosted in the main office.
The users report that when the WAN link in their office becomes unavailable, they cannot access their mailbox.
You create a Microsoft 365 subscription, and then migrate all the user data to Microsoft 365.
You need to ensure that all the users can continue to use Outlook to receive email messages if a WAN link fails.
Solution: For each device, you configure an additional Outlook profile that uses IMAP.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Your company has a Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.onmicrosoft.com that contains
a user named User1.
You suspect that an imposter is signing in to Azure AD by using the credentials of User1.
You need to ensure that an administrator named Admin1 can view all the sign in details of User1 from the past 24
hours.
To which three roles should you add Admin1? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Security administrator
B. Password administrator
C. User administrator
D. Compliance administrator
E. Reports reader
F. Security reader
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 12
Which role should you assign to User1?
A. Security Administrator
B. Records Management
C. Security Reader
D. Hygiene Management
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com that is synced to Microsoft Azure Active
Directory (Azure AD).
The domain contains 100 user accounts.
The city attribute for all the users is set to the city where the user resides.
You need to modify the value of the city attribute to the three-letter airport code of each city.
What should you do?
A. From Active Directory Administrative Center, select the Active Directory users, and then modify the Properties
settings.
B. From the Microsoft 365 admin center, select the users, and then use the Bulk actions option.
C. From Azure Cloud Shell, run the Get-AzureADUser and Set-AzureADUser cmdlets.
D. From Windows PowerShell on a domain controller, run the Get-AzureADUser and Set-AzureADUser cmdlets.
Correct Answer: A

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Latest CompTIA 220-1002 Online Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
Which of the following is the amount of memory a user is limited to with a 32-bit version of Windows?
A. 2GB
B. 4GB
C. 8GB
D. 16GB
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Joe, a customer, requests to have a technician rename his laptop to the name of his favorite sports team. Which of the
following documents MUST the technician consider before performing this action?
A. Acceptable use policy
B. Inventory management
C. EULA
D. MDM policy
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which of the following steps would allow display output from a laptop to an external display? (Select TWO).
A. Press the appropriate Function Key combination
B. A second video card in the Express card slot
C. Disconnect the integrated display
D. Enabling second monitor in the Windows Display Settings
E. Loading external monitor drivers on the laptop
Correct Answer: AD
First enable second monitor in Windows Display settings. After that press the function key along with the assigned key
to display the output on an external monitor

QUESTION 4
A user notices recent print jobs are not printing to the local printer despite printing fine yesterday. There are no errors
indicated on the taskbar printer icon. Which of the following actions should the user take FIRST?
A. Check to ensure the printer selected is the default printer
B. Check the status of the print server queue
C. Cancel all documents and print them again
D. Check that the printer is not offline print mode
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
A user brings in an older CRT monitor and reports there are issues with the colors and bands of discoloration.
Which of the following should be done to correct the issue?
A. Replace the power cord
B. Reformat
C. Increase the refresh rate
D. Degauss
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
A SOHO has had several issues with various unauthorized devices consuming the network\\’s bandwidth. There are
only four network devices that are authorized to access the Internet as well as the local LAN\\’s resources. Which of the
following security implementations would MOST likely help disable network access to the unauthorized devices?
A. Using complex passwords
B. Disabling the use of static IP addresses
C. Disabling ports
D. MAC filtering
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which of the following Windows Enterprise OS version Offers BitLocker as a feature that can be enabled?
A. Windows 7
B. Windows 8
C. Windows 8.1
D. Windows 10
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
A network administrator needs to be able to securely connect to a local router from within the office. Which of the
following protocols should the administrator ensure is enabled on the router?
A. RDP
B. SSH
C. TFTP
D. HTTP
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Joe, a user, reports that several of his colleagues have received a suspicious email from his account that he did not
send. A technician asks one of the colleagues to forward the email for inspection. After ruling out spoofing, the
technician verifies the email originated from the corporate email server.
Which of the following is the FIRST step the technician should take to correct this issue?
A. See if Joe\\’s email address has been blacklisted
B. Change the password on Joe\\’s email account
C. Update the antivirus and perform a full scan on the PC
D. Isolate Joe\\’s computer from the network
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Joe. a technician, receives notification that a share for production data files on the network Is encrypted. Joe suspects a
crypto virus Is active. He checks the rights of the network share to see which departments have access. He then
searches the user directories of those departmental users who are looking for encrypted files. He narrows his search to
a single user\\’s computer. Once the suspected source of the virus is discovered and removed from the network, which
of the following should Joe do NEXT?
A. Educate the end user on safe browsing and email habits.
B. Scan and remove the malware from the infected system.
C. Create a system restore point and reboot the system.
D. Schedule antivirus scans and perform Windows updates.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
A technician accessed a network share from a computer joined to workgroup. The technician logged in as “user1” and
directed the computer to save the username and password. Several weeks later, the technician wants to log in to this
network share using the administrator account. The computer does not prompt for a username and password, but it
automatically logs in to the network share under the “user1” account.
Which of the following would allow the technician to log in using the “administrator” username?
A. Use the command: net use Z: \\fileserver\share
B. Go to the Sync Center and disable the offline files feature.
C. Delete the “user” account for the network share in Credential Manager.
D. Join the computer and file server to a domain and delegate administrator rights to “user1”.
E. Use the Advanced Sharing options in the Network and Sharing Center and enable “turn on network discovery”.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which of the following user groups had default administrative permissions in previous versions of Windows, but now has
no default user rights m Windows 7 and above?
A. Power Users
B. Performance Monitor Users
C. Administrators
D. Guests
E. Users
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
A technician receives a phone call regarding ransomware that has been detected on a PC in a remote office. Which of
the following steps should the technician take FIRST?
A. Disconnect the PC from the network
B. Perform an antivirus scan
C. Run a backup and restore
D. Educate the end user
Correct Answer: A

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Latest CompTIA 220-1001 Online Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
A technician is troubleshooting network connectivity issues after a new wireless router was installed in an office. Users
who connect to the new router are unable to access LAN resources. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of
the issue?
A. There are conflicting DHCP servers on the network
B. There are conflicting ARP records
C. There are conflicting gateways on the network
D. There are conflicting IP protocols
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
A user brings in a smartphone for repair. The device is unable to send/receive calls or connect to WiFi. All applications
on the device are working unless they require connectivity.
Which of the following is MOST likely causing the problem?
A. Airplane mode
B. Tethering
C. Disabled hotspot
D. VPN
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which of the following channels would commonly be used on an 802.11 wireless network?
A. 6
B. 17
C. 802
D. 8080
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which of the following is the main purpose of the +5VSB output of a power supply?
A. It allows peripherals to draw power when the machine is off
B. It provides power to the audio and sound boards of the machine
C. It acts as the main voltage supply to the motherboard and processor
D. It powers all expansion cards and external device hubs
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
There are 20 laptops in a room and they all need to connect wirelessly to the network. Which of the following would be
the BEST device to use?
A. Switch
B. Router
C. Access point
D. Hub
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
A shipping department is having problems with its thermal label printer. Two columns on the left are not appearing on all
labels. Which of the following should a technician do FIRST?
A. Verify the ribbon is correctly aligned to the label
B. Run a label calibration
C. Remove stuck labels from the print path
D. Replace the print head
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which of the following has a P4 connector to provide a 12V output?
A. Molex connector
B. 24-pin adapter
C. SCSI cable
D. eSATA cable
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
A user connects a laptop to a docking station but is unable to see an image on the external monitor. The user tests the
docking station USB ports, and they are working fine. Which of the following should be done NEXT?
A. Check for firmware updates
B. Configure extended display mode
C. Replace the external monitor
D. Adjust the laptop\\’s BIOS settings
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
A technician is troubleshooting network connectivity issue with a remote host. Which of the following tools BEST inform
the technician of nodes between the client and the host? (Select TWO).
A. tracert
B. ping
C. tcpdump
D. pathping
E. netstate
F. nslookup
G. router
Correct Answer: EF

QUESTION 10
DRAG DROP (2)
A customer, Ann, has requested two custom PCs, one to be used for gaming and the other to be used as a virtualization
workstation for her business.
The gaming PC should support the latest games and gaming peripherals.
The virtualization workstation should be able to host several production virtual machines as part of Ann\\’s home
business.
INSTRUCTIONS
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Objects should be placed on the appropriate slot/display areas and can only be used once.
All slot/display areas should be filled.
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QUESTION 11
A user is experiencing email problems and explains to a technician that all emails with graphics or images do not display
the graphics.
Which of the following configurations would correct this behavior?
A. Change the email settings in antivirus.
B. Change the security settings of the email client.
C. Change the firewall security settings.
D. Change the email proxy settings.
E. Change the trusted sites in the browser settings.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
A user has requested a device that could be used for web-conferences while away from work. The device will mainly be
used for emailing, document reviewing, and phone calls. Which of the following mobile devices would a technician
MOST likely recommend?
A. Tablet
B. Smart camera
C. Phablet
D. Web camera
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
A company asks a technician to recommend a solution to conserve paper without degrading print quality. Which of the
following printer settings would BEST enable the technician to accomplish this request?
A. Density
B. Collate
C. Duplex
D. Color management
Correct Answer: C

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Latest CompTIA 220-902 Online Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
Which of the following is the correct socket type for a Pentium 4 processor?
A. 478
B. 939
C. 1366
D. AM2+
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
An administrator sets up a wireless device that they will need to manage across the Internet. Which of the following
security measures would BEST prevent unauthorized access to the device from the Internet?
A. Set the channels to wireless 802.11n only
B. Change the default username and password
C. Enable the wireless AP\\’s MAC filtering
D. Enable the wireless AP\\’s WPA2 security
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
A computer was recently infected by malware after a flash drive was plugged in. The user, Ann, indicates she never
opened any files or folders from the flash drive. A technician needs to prevent this from occurring in the future. Which of
the following would accomplish this?
A. BitLocker To Go
B. Set strong passwords
C. Disable usermin
D. Disable AutoRun
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
After an installation of a video adapter, the screen on a Windows 7 system cannot be seen. Which of the following
Windows 7 functions will resolve this?
A. Component Management
B. Startup Repair
C. Device Manager
D. Task Manager
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which of the following file formats does Android use for application installation?
A. .ipa
B. .api
C. .apk
D. .exe
E. .sdk
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
A file is moved from one folder to another within the same disk volume. Which of the following will happen to the
permissions on the file?
A. The file will get the permissions of both folders
B. The file will get the permissions of the destination folder
C. The file will keep the original permissions
D. The file will have all permissions removed
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
A technician has just upgraded RAM on a user\\’s workstation from 4GB to 8GB. The technician now wants to adjust the
page file size on the system to the recommended Microsoft settings. Which of the following should be entered for the
“Min” portion of the page file setting if using these best practices?
A. 4096MB
B. 8192MB
C. 12288MB
D. 16328MB
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
A technician is configuring a SOHO network of several Windows 7 PCs for a customer. The customer wants to easily
share media and printers between all the PCs. Which of the following Windows features would BEST accomplish this\\’
A. Homegroup
B. Workgroup
C. Directory Services
D. Offline Folders
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which of the following security threats requires the attacker to be physically located near the target machine?
A. Shoulder surfing
B. Social engineering
C. Phishing
D. Rootkit
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
What is a common symptom of a problem starting up the Windows 7 operating system?
A. Spontaneous shutdown/restart
B. Invalid boot disk
C. WinRE won\\’t start
D. The optical disc failed
E. Emergency repair disk doesn\\’t boot
F. REGSVR32 has failed
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Ann, a user, reports that a newly purchased laptop is only showing 65GB total on the C. drive, but she purchased a
100GB hard drive. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause of this difference?
A. The unavailable space is set aside for Windows system files
B. The manufacturer provided a factory recovery partition
C. Corrupted data is being stored in the unused space
D. The partition was setup incorrectly and needs to be extended
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
A user has installed a new USB port replicator for use with their notebook PC. When the replicator monitor port is
connected to a monitor, the monitor will only display at its lowest resolution. Which of the following is the MOST likely
cause of this issue?
A. The monitor self-adjustment control must be configured.
B. The monitor is failing and needs to be checked by a technician.
C. The drivers for the port replicator may not be current.
D. The notebook BIOS is not current and must be updated.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
A network administrator has moved several users\\’ folders to a different server. After mapping to the new shared drive,
the users can access each other\\’s\\’ files. Which of the following could be the cause of this issue?
A. Administrator permissions
B. File permissions
C. File fragmentation
D. Network segmentation
Correct Answer: B

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Latest updates Cisco 700-751 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
Which are three SKUs for Mobility Express? (Choose three.)
A. AIR-AP2802I-K9
B. AIR-AP1815W-x-K9
C. AIR-AP1815I-K9C
D. AIR-AP3802I-K9C
E. AIR-AP1852I-K9
F. AIR-AP2802I-K9C
Correct Answer: BCF

QUESTION 2
Which three statements regarding Mobility Express are true? (Choose three.)
A. Runs wireless LAN controller function on an access point
B. Ideal for sites with up to 200access points and 2000 clients
C. Provisioning to configure the controller
D. Supported on all Wave 2 access points
E. Supports simple Over-the-Air
F. Supports Workgroup Bridge mode of operation
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 3
Which two statements describe how Cisco can achieve Threat Centric Defense? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco applications constantly scan the environment and analyze outputs to gain a more comprehensive view of
potential threats
B. Limit secure access to growing set of Cloud applications
C. Cisco delivers a common platform across network, infrastructure, appliances and the cloud
D. Cisco network analytics provides visibility and real-time awareness across the entire network by leveraging anomaly
detection and network telemetry
E. Cisco offers the industry\\’s broadest set of enforcement and remediation options for usage control to accelerate
deployment and unify management
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 4
Which is the range of users is supported by the Business Edition 4000 (BE4000)?
A. 100-120
B. 10-120
C. 1000-1200
D. 10-200
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which are the two advantages of having Direct Internet Access? (Choose two.)
A. Limits guest Wi-Fi at the branch
B. Secure WAN transport
C. Protects remote employees
D. Threat mitigation techniques
E. Leverage local internet path
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 6
What are two main reasons for deploying small-medium Wi-Fi solutions? (Choose two.)
A. Obtain enterprise-class solution features at the SMB price
B. Simplify deployment for organizations with limited IT staff
C. Need to identify potentially malicious rogue devices or users
D. Provide single pane of glass for routing and switching
E. Separate guest traffic from production traffic at reasonable OpEx.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 7
Which two are Cisco recommended controller options for deployment of up to 150 AP\\’s? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco 8540 WLC
B. Cisco 3504 WLC
C. Cisco 5508 WLC
D. Cisco 5520 WLC
E. Cisco mobility Express
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 8
How does Cisco Business-Class SMB switches provide two simplified managements? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Prime Infrastructure Support
B. Limited scalability and hardware choices
C. Uncompromised security enabled by TrustSec and Identify Services Engine (ISE)
D. Standalone Configuration with Web GUI
E. Integrated live tools for fast troubleshooting
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 9
What are the two features licenses (subscriptions) available for MX security appliances? (Choose two.)
A. Comprehensive
B. Advanced security
C. Enterprise
D. Essential
E. Defended
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 10
Which two Cisco security solutions provide customers with reliable visibility and control to facility management of their
entire environment? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco offers controls for Data Loss Prevention (DLP) with more than 100 predefined policies covering government,
private sector regulations, and custom specific regulations
B. Cisco allows customers to pick the solutions that are right for their business to address threats specific to their
environment
C. Cisco provides enhanced threat awareness by compiling billions of worldwide daily transactions through cloud-based
threat intelligence
D. Cisco Talos is the industry leading threat intelligence organization
E. Cisco security Manager and Firepower Management Center provide centralized management options for NGFW,
NGIPS and VPN
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 11
What is Meraki\\’s core vision and value proposition?
A. To operate in increasingly mobile, modern networks by delivering preventative protection without compromising
performance
B. To provide a complete cloud-managed IT solution through simplifying powerful technology
C. To lead in the invention and development of the industry\\’s most advanced information technologies
D. To shape the future of the internet by creating opportunities for the investors and ecosystem partners
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
What are two ways that MX security appliances achieve automatic failover and high availability? (Choose two.)
A. Always on (availability groups)
B. Survivable Remote Site Technology (SRST)
C. Warm spare (using VRRP)
D. Redundant gateways (using HSRP)
E. Dual redundant uplink support (multiple ISPs)
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 13
How is an Organization defined within the context of the Meraki Dashboard?
A. It serves as the boundary of the account\\’s administrative domain, including license, inventory, and user
management.
B. It is defined by the user\\’s network construct and categorized as either small-medium enterprise (SME), campus, or a
distributed enterprise.
C. It contains Cisco Meraki devices, their configurations, statistics, and any client-device information.
D. It consists of multiple service provider resources, including support ticket management and API sandboxes.
Correct Answer: C

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Latest updates Cisco 500-601 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
What is the valid shard range for an object DN?
A. 1-64
B. 1-16
C. 0-15
D. 1-32
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which two statements about Cisco ACI interaction with STP in legacy networks are true? (Choose two)
A. External switches ignore flooded BPDU frames received from the Cisco ACI fabric.
B. BPDU guard is enabled on FEX ports by default.
C. BPDU guard cannot be configured on leaf edge ports.
D. STP is enabled by default within the Cisco ACI fabric.
E. BPDU frame is flooded within EPG No configuration is required.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 3
During day-to-day operations, you notice that the HealthScore has decreased. What should you check first to
understand what has impacted the score?
A. faults
B. audit togs
C. events
D. accounting logs
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which option describes the ASICs that comprise the 2 RU spine chassis PID Cisco Nexus 9336PQ?
A. three Broadcom and one Alpine
B. two Broadcom and two Alpine
C. two Broadcom and one Alpine
D. one Broadcom and two Alpine
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which statement about the Cisco APIC cluster in minority state is true?
A. Policy/Config changes are possible each cluster member in leader state.
B. Policy/Config changes are possible on cluster leader APIC1.
C. Policy/Config changes are not possible on any cluster member.
D. Policy/Config changes are possible on any cluster member.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which two policies can be set within the vswitch policies of an Attachable Access Entity Profile on 1.0? (Choose two.)
A. PortChannel Policy
B. Monitoring Policy
C. CDP Policy
D. LACP Policy
E. VLAN Policy
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit shell:domains = domain / Role1 | Role2 | Role3 / Role4 | Role5 | Role6
In the Cisco AV Pair, which two options are correct? (Choose two.)
A. Role1 = Read
B. Role2 = Read
C. Role5 = Write
D. Role2 = Write
E. Role6 = Write
F. Role1 = Write
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 8
Which two statements about tenant bridge domain Layer 2 unknown unicast forwarding modes are true\\’? (Choose
two.)
A. If forwarding mode is flood, unknown Layer 2 unicast is sent to all Layer 2 ports in the bridge domain.
B. If forwarding mode is proxy, unknown Layer 2 unicast packets are sent to border leaf proxy for forwarding.
C. By default, multicast traffic is always flooded within the bridge domain VLAN.
D. Layer 2 unknown unicast can be set to flood or proxy, the default is flood.
E. If border leaf proxy cannot resolve the destination, packet is flooded.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 9
Where does the VIP for the vPC come from?
A. assigned by Cisco ARC from the management tenant IP space.
B. allocated from the vPC domain number assigned to the vPC peers.
C. DHCP from the infra TEP pool leaf portion.
D. DHCP from the infra TEP pool VIP portion.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which command is used to successfully SSH into a Cisco ARC or switch CLI using a remote authentication server?
A. apic#rad_check//[email protected]
B. ssh apic#rad_check\\[email protected]
C. ssh apic#ad_ch?k//[email protected]
D. ssh apic@rad_check\\[email protected]
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
On the Cisco Nexus 93128 chassis, which port range is capable of operating at 40 GB?
A. 1/97-1/100
B. 1/97-1/104
C. 1/97-1/108
D. 1/100-1/108
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which option describes how to clear a fault from the Cisco ARC after it has been generated?
A. Faults are raised and cleared automatically by the system.
B. Faults can be “acknowledged” only after the fault is in the “soaking” state.
C. Faults can be “acknowledged,” which means it is immediately cleared from the system.
D. Faults are cleared only after the log is full, so the oldest faults are deleted.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit
F16438[FSM:STAGE:FAILED]: Establish connection Stage: comp/prov-VMware/ ctrlr-[RTPACILab]-TestVcenter Failed
to retrieve ServiceContent from the vCenter server 10.122.253.152(FSM-STAGE:ifc:vmmmgr:CompCtrlrAdd:Connect)lead4pass 500-601 exam question q13

Which option is a potential reason why you would see this output while provisioning a DVS?
A. The specified data center does not exist on the vCenter m question.
B. The Cisco APIC(s) cannot reach the vCenter host/vm.
C. The Service Content process has crashed.
D. Cisco Discovery Protocol is disabled on the vswitch policy tied to the corresponding AAEP.
Correct Answer: A

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Cisco CCNP Wireless 300-375 Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
DRAG DROP
Drag the EAP Authentication type on the left to the accurate description provided on the right.
Select and Place:lead4pass 300-375 exam question q1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 300-375 exam question q1-2

QUESTION 2
An engineer is troubleshooting rogue access points that are showing up in Cisco Prime Infrastructure.
What is the maximum number of APs the engineer can use to contain an identified rogue access point in the WLC?
A. 6
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Correct Answer: C
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/7-4/configuration/guides/consolidated/b_cg74_CONSOLIDATED/b_cg74_CONSOLIDATED_chapter_010111001.html

QUESTION 3
A customer wants to allow employees to easily onboard their devices to the wireless network. Which process can be
configured on Cisco ISE to support this requirement?
A. self-registration guest portal
B. client provisioning
C. native supplicant provisioning
D. local web auth
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which two options are types of MFP that can be performed? (Choose two.)
A. message integrity check
B. infrastructure
C. client
D. AES-CCMP
E. RSN
Correct Answer: BC
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless-mobility/wlan-security/82196-mfp.html#climfp

QUESTION 5
An engineer is configuring a BYOD provisioning WLAN. Which two advanced WLAN settings are required? (Choose
two)
A. DHCP profiling
B. DHCP address assignment
C. passive client
D. RADIUS NAC
E. AAA override
Correct Answer: DE
Allow AAA Override: Enabled NAC State: Radius NAC (selected)
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless/5500-series-wireless-controllers/113476-wireless-byod-ise-00.html

QUESTION 6
An engineer is implementing SNMP v3 on a wireless LAN controller and wants to use the combination of authentication
and privacy protocols with the highest security available. Which protocols must be configured?
A. CBC-DES with HMAC-MD5
B. CFB-AES-128 with HMAC-MD5
C. CBC-DES with HMAC-SHA
D. CBF-AES-128 with HMAC-SHA
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
An engineer is working on a remote site that is configured using FlexConnect. They are worried that the access points
will not send RADIUS requests directly to the authentication server is standalone mode. Which command ensures direct
authentication using the default ports as defined on the WLC?
A. config flexconnect group Remote radius server acct add primary 10.10.10.10 1813 Cisco123
B. config flexconnect group Remote radius server auth add primary 10.10.10.10 1813 Cisco123
C. config flexconnect group Remote radius server acct add primary 10.10.10.10 1812 Cisco123
D. config flexconnect group Remote radius server auth add primary 10.10.10.10 1812 Cisco123
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
An engineer is configuring a BYOD deployment strategy and prefers a single SSID model. Which technology is required
to accomplish this configuration?
A. mobility service engine
B. wireless control system
C. identity service engine
D. Prime Infrastructure
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Please refer to the section “Single SSID Wireless BYOD Self Registration” of the below mentioned link.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/security/ise/how_to/HowTo-61-BYOD-Onboarding_Registering_and_Provisioning.pdf

QUESTION 9
An engineer is changing the authentication method of a wireless network from EAP-FAST to EAP-TLS. Which two
changes are necessary? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Secure ACS is required.
B. A Cisco NAC server is required.
C. All authenticating clients require their own certificates.
D. The authentication server now requires a certificate.
E. The users require the Cisco AnyConnect client.
Correct Answer: CD
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/wireless/aironet-1300-series/prod_qas09186a00802030dc.html

QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit. What do the red circles represent in the exhibit?lead4pass 300-375 exam question q10

A. detected interferers
B. wIPs attacker
C. RSSI cutoff
D. zones of impact
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
How many mobility peers can a Cisco Catalyst 3850-MC node have?
A. 8
B. 2
C. 6
D. 16
E. 4
Correct Answer: A
The Mobility Controller (MC) role is supported on a number of different platforms like, the Cisco WLC 5700 Series,
CUWN and Catalyst 3850 Switches. The scale requirements on these three platforms are summarized in the table
below:lead4pass 300-375 exam question q11

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst3850/software/release/3se/mobility/configuration_guide/b_mobility_3se_3850_cg/b_mobility_32se_3850_cg_chapter_010.html

QUESTION 12
How should the Cisco Secure ACS v4.2 and the Cisco WLC v7.0 be configured to support wireless client
authentication?
A. The WLC configured for RADIUS and the Cisco Secure ACS configured for RADIUS (Cisco Airespace)
B. The WLC configured for RADIUS and the Cisco Secure ACS configured for RADIUS (IETF)
C. The WLC configured for TACACS+ and the Cisco Secure ACS configured for TACACS+ (Cisco Airespace)
D. The WLC configured for TACACS+ and the Cisco Secure ACS configured for TACACS+ (Cisco IOS)
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which option determines which RADIUS server is preferred the most by the Cisco WLC?
A. the Server Index (Priority) drop-down list
B. the server status
C. the server IP address
D. the port number
Correct Answer: A
If you are adding a new server, choose a number from theServer Index (Priority) drop-down list to specify the priority
order of this server in relation to any other configured RADIUS servers providing the same service. You can configure
up to 17 servers. If the controller cannot reach the first server, it tries the second one in the list, then the third one if
necessary, and so on.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/7-0/configuration/guide/c70/c70sol.html

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Skills measured

  • Configure and Manage High Availability
  • Configure File and Storage Solutions
  • Implement Business Continuity and Disaster Recovery
  • Configure Network Services
  • Configure the Active Directory Infrastructure
  • Configure Access and Information Protection Solutions

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Latest effective Microsoft MCSE 70-412 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
You are employed as a network administrator at consoto.com.
Contoso.com has in an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
All Servers on the contoso.com network have Windows Server 2012 R2 installed.
A contoso.com server ,named Server1,hosts the Active Directory Certificate Services Server role and utilizes a
hardware security module(HSM) to safeguard its private key.
You have beed instructed to backup the Active Directory Certificate Services (ADCS) database,log files,and private key
regularly.
You should not use a utility supplied by the hardware security module (HSM) creator.
Which of the following actions should you take?
A. You should consider scheduling an incremental backup
B. You Should consider making use of the certutil.exe command.
C. You should consider schedulling a differential backup
D. You should consider schedulling a copy backup
Correct Answer: B
A. ADCS needs to be backup up using certutil
B. -Backup, -backupdb, -backupKey: You can use Certutil.exe to dump and display certification authority (CA)
configuration information, configure Certificate Services, backup and restore CA components, and verify certificates, key
pairs, and certificate chains.
C. ADCS needs to be backup up using certutil
D. ADCS needs to be backup up using certutil
http://technet.microsoft.com/library/cc732443.aspx http://technet.microsoft.com/en-
us/library/cc732443.aspx#BKMK_backup http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc732443.aspx#BKMK_backupDB
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/ library/cc732443.aspx#BKMK_backupKey
http://blogs.technet.com/b/pki/archive/2010/04/20/disaster-recovery-procedures-for- theactive-directorycertificate-
services-adcs.aspxlead4pass 70-412 exam question q1

QUESTION 2
You network contains one Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains a DNS server named
Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
All domain computers use Server1 for DNS.
You sign adatum.com by using DNSSEC.
You need to configure the domain computers to validate DNS responses for adatum.com records.
What should you configure in Group Policy?
A. Network List Manager Policies
B. Network Access Protection (NAP)
C. Name Resolution Policy
D. Public Key Policy
Correct Answer: C
Name resolution policy needs to be configured in group policy. “In both example 1 and example 2, validation is not
required for the secure.contoso.com zone because the Name Resolution Policy Table (NRPT) is not configured to
require validation.” https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/jj200221.aspx

QUESTION 3
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
From Server Manager, you install the Active Directory Certificate Services server role on Server1.
A domain administrator named Admin1 logs on to Server1.
When Admin1 runs the Certification Authority console, Admin1 receives the following error message.lead4pass 70-412 exam question q3

You need to ensure that when Admin1 opens the Certification Authority console on Server1, the error message does not
appear. What should you do?
A. Run the Install-AdcsCertificationAuthority cmdlet.
B. Install the Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS) tools.
C. Modify the PATH system variable.
D. Add Admin1 to the Cert Publishers group.
Correct Answer: B
*
Cannot manage Active Directory Certificate Services The error message is related to missing role configuration.
*
Cannot Manage Active Directory Certificate Services Resolution: configure the two Certification Authority and
Certification Authority Web Enrollment Roles.
*
Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS) is an Active Directory tool that lets administrators customize services in
order to issue and manage public key certificates.
AD CS included:
CA Web enrollment – connects users to a CA with a Web browser Certification authorities (CAs) – manages certificate
validation and issues certificates Etc.
Incorrect:
Not A. The CA is installed, it just need to be configured correctly.
Note: Install-AdcsCertificationAuthority
The Install-AdcsCertificationAuthority cmdlet performs installation and configuration of the AD CS CA role service.
Reference: Cannot manage Active Directory Certificate Services in Server 2012 Error 0x800070002; Active Directory
Certificate Services (AD CS) Definition
http://searchwindowsserver.techtarget.com/definition/Active-Directory-Certificate-Services- AD-CS

QUESTION 4
You are about to promote a server running the Windows Server 2012 R2 operating system to domain controller.
The domain is currently running at the Windows Server 2008 domain functional level.
Your account is a member of the Domain Admins group.
Which additional groups should your account be a member of to ensure that the environment is appropriately configured
for this domain controller running Windows Server 2012 R2? (Choose two. Each answer forms part of a complete
solution.)
A. Schema Admins
B. Enterprise Admins
C. Account Operators
D. Server Operators
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 5
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and is used for testing.
A developer at your company creates and installs an unsigned kernel-mode driver on Server1. The developer reports
that Server1 will no longer start.
You need to ensure that the developer can test the new driver. The solution must minimize the amount of data loss.
Which Advanced Boot Option should you select?
A. Disable Driver Signature Enforcement
B. Disable automatic restart on system failure
C. Last Know Good Configuration (advanced)
D. Repair Your Computer
Correct Answer: A
A. By default, 64-bit versions of Windows Vista and later versions of Windows will load a kernel-mode driver only if the
kernel can verify the driver signature. However, this default behavior can be disabled to facilitate early driver
development and non-automated testing.lead4pass 70-412 exam question q5Incorrect:
Not B. specifies that Windows automatically restarts your computer when a failure occurs. Not C. Developer would not
be able to test the driver as needed. Not D. Removes or repairs critical windows files, Developer would not be able to
test
the driver as needed and some file loss.
Reference: Installing Windows Server 2012. http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/jj134246.aspx
http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/windows/hardware/ff547565(v=vs.85).aspx

QUESTION 6
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1
that runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and has the DHCP Server server role installed. Server1 has an IPv6 scope named
Scope1.
You implement an additional DHCP server named Server2 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
You need to provide high availability for Scope1. The solution must minimize administrative effort.
What should you do?
A. Install and configure Network Load Balancing (NLB) on Server1 and Server2.
B. Create a scope on Server2.
C. Configure DHCP failover on Server1.
D. Install and configure Failover Clustering on Server1 and Server2.
Correct Answer: C
Overview: Configure DHCP failover using the DHCP console To configure DHCP failover using the DHCP console, right-
click a DHCP scope or right- click IPv4 and then click Configure Failover.lead4pass 70-412 exam question q6Configure Failover
The Configure Failover wizard guides you through configuring DHCP failover on the selected scope.
Note: The DHCP server failover feature, available in Windows Server 2012 and later, provides the ability to have two
DHCP servers provide IP addresses and option configuration to the same subnet or scope, providing for continuous
availability of DHCP service to clients.
Incorrect:
Not A. NLB is not related to DHCP scope availability.
Not B. DHCP failover requirements include:
DHCP Scopes requirement:
At least one IPv4 DHCP scope must be configured on the primary DHCP server. The same DHCP scope ID, or an
overlapping scope, must not be configured on the failover partner.
Not D. Failover clustering is possibly, but would not minimize administration.
Reference: Deploy DHCP Failover

QUESTION 7
Your network contains one Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
From the Group Policy Management console, you view the details of a Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1 as
shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
You need to ensure that the comments field of GPO1 contains a detailed description of GPO1.
What should you do?
Exhibit: * Missing*
A. From Group Policy Management, click View, and then click Customize.
B. From Active Directory Users and Computers, edit the properties of
contoso.com/System/Policies/{229DCD27-9D98-ACC2-A6AE –ED765F065FF5}.
C. Open GPO1 in the Group Policy Management Editor, and then modify the properties of GPO1.
D. From Notepad, edit \\contoso.com\SYSVOL\contoso.com\Policies\{229DCD27-9D98-ACC2-A6AE
–ED765F065FF5}\gpt.ini.
Correct Answer: C
You can include comments for each Group Policy object. You can use this space to document the Group Policy object
and why its implementation is important to your environment. Commenting GPOs allows you to later use keyword filter
to
help you quickly find GPOs with matching keywords.
Adding a comment to a Group Policy object
Open the Group Policy Management Console. Expand the Group Policy Objects node.
Right-click the Group Policy object you want to comment and then click Edit . In the console tree, right-click the name of
the Group Policy object and then click Properties .
Click the Comment tab.
Type your comments in the Comment box.
Click OK
Reference: Comment a Group Policy Object
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc770974.aspx

QUESTION 8
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named corp.contoso.com.
You deploy Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS).
You have a rights policy template named Template1. Revocation is disabled for the template.
A user named User1 can open content that is protected by Template1 while the user is connected to the corporate
network.
When User1 is disconnected from the corporate network, the user cannot open the protected content even if the user
previously opened the content.
You need to ensure that the content protected by Template1 can be opened by users who are disconnected from the
corporate network.
What should you modify?
A. The User Rights settings of Template1
B. The templates file location of the AD RMS cluster
C. The Extended Policy settings of Template1
D. The exclusion policies of the AD RMS cluster
Correct Answer: C
*
The extended rights policy of a template controls how content licenses are to be implemented. The extended rights
policy template settings are specified by using the Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS)
administration site. The available settings control persistence of author rights, whether trusted browsers are supported,
license persistence within the content, and enforcement of any application-specific data.
*
You can add trust policies so that AD RMS can process licensing requests for content that was rights protected.
Reference: Extended Policy Template Information; AD RMS and Server Design http://technet.microsoft.com/en-
us/library/ee221071(v=ws.10).aspx

QUESTION 9
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains servers named Server1
and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the Active Directory Federation Services server role
installed.
Server2 is a file server.
Your company introduces a Bring Your Own Device (BYOD) policy.
You need to ensure that users can use a personal device to access domain resources by using Single Sign-On (SSO)
while they are connected to the internal network.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
Choose two.)
A. Enable the Device Registration Service in Active Directory.
B. Publish the Device Registration Service by using a Web Application Proxy.
C. Configure Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) for the Device Registration Service.
D. Create and configure a sync share on Server2.
E. Install the Work Folders role service on Server2.
Correct Answer: AC
*
Workplace Join leverages a feature included in the Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) Role in Windows
Server 2012 R2, called Device Registration Service (DRS). DRS provisions a device object in Active Directory when a
device is Workplace Joined. Once the device object is in Active Directory, attributes of that object can be retrieved and
used to provide conditional access to resources and applications. The device identity is represented by a certificate
which is set on the personal device by DRS when the device is Workplace Joined.
*
In Windows Server 2012 R2, AD FS and Active Directory Domain Services have been extended to comprehend the
most popular mobile devices and provide conditional access to enterprise resources based on user+device
combinations and access policies. With these policies in place, you can control access based on users, devices,
locations, and access times.
Reference: BYOD Basics: Enabling the use of Consumer Devices using Active Directory in Windows Server 2012 R2

QUESTION 10
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains a single domain. The forest
contains three Active Directory sites named SiteA, SiteB, and SiteC. The sites contain four domain controllers. The
domain controllers are configured as shown in the following table.lead4pass 70-412 exam question q10

An IP site link exits between each site.
You discover that the users in SiteC are authenticated by the domain controllers in SiteA and SiteB.
You need to ensure that the SiteC users are authenticated by the domain controllers in SiteB, unless all of the domain
controllers in SiteB are unavailable.
What should you do?
A. Create an SMTP site link between SiteB and SiteC.
B. Crate additional connection objects for DC1 and DC2.
C. Decrease the cost of the site link between SiteB and SiteC.
D. Create additional connection objects for DC3 and DC4.
Correct Answer: C
By decreasing the site link cost between SiteB and SiteC the SiteC users would be authenticated by SiteB rather than
by SiteA.

QUESTION 11
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the File Server Resource Manager
role service installed. You attempt to delete a classification property and you receive the error message as shown in the
exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)lead4pass 70-412 exam question q11

You need to delete the isConfidential classification property. What should you do?
A. Delete the classification rule that is assigned the isConfidential classification property.
B. Disable the classification rule that is assigned the isConfidential classification property.
C. Set files that have an isConfidential classification property value of Yes to No.
D. Clear the isConfidential classification property value of all files.
Correct Answer: A
You would have to delete the classification rule in order to delete the classification property.

QUESTION 12
Your network contans one active directory domain named contoso.com.
The domain contains two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2.
You perform daily backups of the data on Server1 to microsoft azure.
You need to restore the data from the 1st backup of Server1 to Server2.
What should you do first?
A. On Server2, install the azure backup agent.
B. In the domain, add server1 to the backup operators group.
C. From the azure management portal, modify the configuration of the backup vault.
D. On Server2, install the windows server backup feature.
Correct Answer: A
https://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/documentation/articles/backup-azure-restore-windows- server/#recover-to-an-
alternate-machine

QUESTION 13
You perform a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2 on a server named Server1.
You need to add a graphical user interface (GUI) to Server1.
Which tool should you use?
A. the dism.exe command
B. the ocsetup.exe command
C. the setup.exe command
D. the Install-Module cmdlet
Correct Answer: A
The DISM command is called by the Add-WindowsFeature command. Here is the systax for DISM:
Dism /online /enable-feature /featurename:ServerCore-FullServer /featurename:ServerGui- Shell /featurename:Server-
Gui-Mgmt

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Who should take this exam?

This exam is part three of a series of three exams that test the skills and knowledge necessary to administer a Windows Server 2012
infrastructure in an enterprise environment. Passing this exam validates a candidate’s ability to perform the advanced configuring
tasks required to deploy, manage, and maintain a Windows Server 2012 infrastructure, such as fault tolerance, certificate services,
and identity federation. Passing this exam along with the other two exams confirms that a candidate has the skills and knowledge
necessary for implementing, managing, maintaining, and provisioning services and infrastructure in a Windows Server 2012 environment.

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