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Exam 70-463: Implementing a Data Warehouse with Microsoft SQL Server 2012/2014: https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-70-463.aspx

Skills measured

• Design and implement a data warehouse (10–15%)
• Extract and transform data (20–25%)
• Load data (25–30%)
• Configure and deploy SSIS solutions (20–25%)
• Build data quality solutions (15–20%)

Latest effective Microsoft MCSE 70-463 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
You are deploying a new SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package to five servers.
The package must meet the following requirements:
.NET Common Language Runtime (CLR) integration in SQL Server must not be enabled.
The Connection Managers used in the package must be configurable without editing and redeploying the package.
The deployment procedure must be automated as much as possible.
Performance must be maximized.
You need to set up a deployment strategy that meets the requirements. What should you do?
A. Add an OnError event handler to the SSIS project.
B. Use an msi file to deploy the package on the server.
C. Open a command prompt and run the gacutil command.
D. Open a command prompt and run the dtutil /copy command.
E. Open a command prompt and run the dtexec /rep /conn command.
F. Open a command prompt and run the dtexec /dumperror /conn command.
G. Open a command prompt and execute the package by using the SQL Log provider and running the dtexecui.exe
utility.
H. Create a reusable custom logging component and use it in the SSIS project.
I. Configure the SSIS solution to use the Project Deployment Model.
J. Configure the output of a component in the package data flow to use a data tap.
K. Run the dtutil command to deploy the package to the SSIS catalog and store the configuration in SQL Server.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package.
You need to design a package to change a variable value during package execution by using the least amount of
development effort.
What should you use?
A. Express on task
B. Data Cleansing transformation
C. Fuzzy Lookup transformation
D. Term Lookup transformation
E. Data Profiling task
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
You develop a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package that imports SQL Azure data into a data warehouse
every night.
The SQL Azure data contains many misspellings and variations of abbreviations. To import the data, a developer used
the Fuzzy Lookup transformation to choose the closest-
matching string from a reference table of allowed values. The number of rows in the reference table is very large.
If no acceptable match is found, the Fuzzy Lookup transformation passes a null value.
The current setting for the Fuzzy Lookup similarity threshold is 0.50.
Many values are incorrectly matched.
You need to ensure that more accurate matches are made by the Fuzzy Lookup transformation without degrading
performance.
What should you do?
A. Change the Exhaustive property to True.
B. Change the similarity threshold to 0.55.
C. Change the similarity threshold to 0.40.
D. Increase the maximum number of matches per lookup.
Correct Answer: B
http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms137786.aspx

QUESTION 4
You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) project by using the Project Deployment Model.
The project will be deployed to an SSIS catalog folder where Environments have already been created. You need to
deploy the project.
What should you do?
A. Use an event handler for OnError for the package.
B. Use an event handler for OnError for each data flow task.
C. Use an event handler for OnTaskFailed for the package.
D. View the job history for the SQL Server Agent job.
E. View the All Messages subsection of the All Executions report for the package.
F. Store the System::SourceID variable in the custom log table.
G. Store the System::ServerExecutionID variable in the custom log table.
H. Store the System::ExecutionInstanceGUID variable in the custom log table.
I. Enable the SSIS log provider for SQL Server for OnError in the package control flow.
J. Enable the SSIS log provider for SQL Server for OnTaskFailed in the package control flow,
K. Deploy the project by using dtutil.exe with the /COPY DTS option.
L. Deploy the project by using dtutil.exe with the /COPY SQL option.
M. Deploy the .ispac file by using the Integration Services Deployment Wizard.
N. Create a SQL Server Agent job to execute the SSISDB.catalog.validate_project stored procedure.
O. Create a SQL Server Agent job to execute the SSISDB.catalog.validate_package stored procedure.
P. Create a SQL Server Agent job to execute the SSISDB.catalog.create_execution and
SSISDB.catalog.start_execution stored procedures.
Q. Create a table to store error information. Create an error output on each data flow destination that writes OnError
event text to the table.
R. Create a table to store error information. Create an error output on each data flow destination that writes
OnTaskFailed event text to the table.
Correct Answer: M

QUESTION 5
You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package to load data into a data warehouse. The
package consists of several data flow tasks.
The package experiences intermittent errors in the data flow tasks.
If any data flow task fails, all package error information must be captured and written to a SQL Server table by using an
OLE DB connection manager.
You need to ensure that the package error information is captured and written to the table.
What should you do?
A. Use an event handler for OnError for the package.
B. Use an event handler for OnError for each data flow task.
C. Use an event handler for OnTaskFailed for the package.
D. View the job history for the SQL Server Agent job.
E. View the All Messages subsection of the All Executions report for the package.
F. Store the System::SourceID variable in the custom log table.
G. Store the System::ServerExecutionID variable in the custom log table.
H. Store the System::ExecutionInstanceGUID variable in the custom log table.
I. Enable the SSIS log provider for SQL Server for OnError in the package control flow.
J. Enable the SSIS log provider for SQL Server for OnTaskFailed in the package control flow.
K. Deploy the project by using dtutil.exe with the /COPY DTS option.
L. Deploy the project by using dtutil.exe with the /COPY SQL option.
M. Deploy the .ispac file by using the Integration Services Deployment Wizard.
N. Create a SQL Server Agent job to execute the SSISDB.catalog.validate_project stored procedure.
O. Create a SQL Server Agent job to execute the SSISDB.catalog.validate_package stored procedure.
P. Create a SQL Server Agent job to execute the SSISDB.catalog.create_execution and
SSISDB.catalog.start_execution stored procedures.
Q. Create a table to store error information. Create an error output on each data flow destination that writes OnError
event text to the table.
R. Create a table to store error information. Create an error output on each data flow destination that writes
OnTaskFailed event text to the table.
Correct Answer: I

QUESTION 6
You are designing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) data flow to load sales transactions from a source system
into a data warehouse hosted on Windows Azure SQL Database. One of the columns in the data source is named
ProductCode.
Some of the data to be loaded will reference products that need special processing logic in the data flow.
You need to enable separate processing streams for a subset of rows based on the source product code.
Which Data Flow transformation should you use?
A. Script Component
B. Audit
C. Destination Assistant
D. Data Conversion
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
You are editing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package that contains three Execute SQL tasks and no other
tasks. The package and all three Execute SQL tasks have
their TransactionOption property set to Supported.
You need to ensure that if any of the Execute SQL tasks fail, all three tasks will roll back their changes.
What should you do?
A. Move the three Execute SQL tasks into a Sequence container.
B. Move the three Execute SQL tasks into a Foreach Loop container.
C. Change the TransactionOption property of all three Execute SQL tasks to Required.
D. Change the TransactionOption property of the package to Required.
Correct Answer: D
Reference: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms137749.aspx http://msdn.microsoft.com/en
us/library/microsoft.sqlserver.dts.runtime.dtstransactionoption.aspx

QUESTION 8
You are designing a data warehouse with two fact tables. The first table contains sales per month and the second table
contains orders per day.
Referential integrity must be enforced declaratively.
You need to design a solution that can join a single time dimension to both fact tables.
What should you do?
A. Create a time mapping table.
B. Partition the fact tables by day.
C. Create a time dimension that can join to both fact tables at their respective granularity.
D. Join the two fact tables.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
You are designing an Extract, Transform and Load (ETL) solution that loads data into dimension tables. The ETL
process involves many transformation steps.
You need to ensure that the design can provide:
Auditing information for compliance and business user acceptance Tracking and unique identification of records for
troubleshooting and error correction
What should you do?
A. Develop a Master Data Services (MDS) solution.
B. Develop a Data Quality Services (DQS) solution.
C. Create a version control repository for the ETL solution.
D. Develop a custom data lineage solution.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
You are designing a fact table in a SQL Server database.
The fact table must meet the following requirements:
Include a columnstore index.
Allow users to choose up to 10 dimension tables and up to five facts at one time.
Maximize performance of queries that aggregate measures by using any of the 10 dimensions.
Support billions of rows.
Use the most efficient design strategy.
You need to design the fact table to meet the requirements. What should you do? (More than one answer choice may
achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.)
A. Design a fact table with 5 dimensional key columns and 10 measure columns. Place the columnstore index on the
dimensional key columns.
B. Design a fact table with 5 dimensional key columns and 10 measure columns. Place the columnstore index on the
measure columns.
C. Design a fact table with 10 dimensional key columns and 5 measure columns. Place the columnstore index on the
dimensional key columns and the measure columns.
D. Design a fact table with 10 dimensional key columns and 5 measure columns. Place the columnstore index on only
the measure columns.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
To support the implementation of new reports, Active Directory data will be downloaded to a SQL Server database by
using a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) 2012 package.
The following requirements must be met: All the user information for a given Active Directory group must be downloaded
to a SQL Server table. The download process must traverse the Active Directory hierarchy recursively.
You need to configure the package to meet the requirements by using the least development effort.
Which item should you use?
A. Script task
B. Script component configured as a transformation
C. Script component configured as a source
D. Script component configured as a destination
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
You are creating a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package to retrieve product data from two different sources.
One source is hosted in a SQL Azure database. Each source contains products for different distributors.
Products for each distributor source must be combined for insertion into a single product table destination.
You need to select the appropriate data flow transformation to meet this requirement.
Which transformation types should you use? (Each answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Slowly Changing Dimension
B. pivot
C. Lookup
D. Union All
E. Merge
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 13
You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) project to read and write data from a Windows Azure SQL
Database database to a server that runs SQL Server 2012.
The connection will be used by data flow tasks in multiple SSIS packages. The address of the target Windows Azure
SQL Database database will be provided by a project parameter.
You need to create a solution to meet the requirements by using the least amount of administrative effort and
maximizing data flow performance.
What should you do?
A. Use an SSIS Script task that uses the custom assembly to parse the text data when inserting it.
B. Use an SSIS Script transformation that uses the custom assembly to parse the text data when inserting it.
C. Create a SQL Common Language Runtime (SQLCLR) function that uses the custom assembly to parse the text data,
deploy it in the Windows Azure SQL Database database, and use it when inserting data.
D. Create a SQL Common Language Runtime (SQLCLR) stored procedure that uses the custom assembly to parse the
text data, deploy it in the Windows Azure SQL Database database, and use it when inserting data.
Correct Answer: B

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Latest effective CompTIA Network+ N10-005 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
Which of the following devices acts as a gateway between clients and servers?
A. WINS server
B. Proxy server
C. Content filter
D. DNS server
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
A network administrator suspects a broadcast storm is causing performance issues on the network. Which of the
following would be used to verify this situation?
A. Environmental monitor
B. Multimeter
C. Toner probe
D. Protocol analyzer
Correct Answer: D
A “Protocol analyzer” is a tool (hardware or software) used to capture and analyze signals and data traffic over a
communication channel.

QUESTION 3
Which of the following is the control when observing network bandwidth patterns over time?
A. Network log
B. Baseline
C. Flow data
D. Interface statistics
Correct Answer: B
To successfully baseline a network it is important to consider two functions; performance at protocol level and
performance at application level. There are many significant metrics to consider at the protocol level, but only a few
which are critical. The most important is bandwidth utilization compared with bandwidth availability. The most likely
cause of poor network performance is insufficient bandwidth. Trending bandwidth utilization allows you to recognize
problem areas, provide enough bandwidth to reach performance objectives, and predict future capacity requirements.
Changes in bandwidth utilization patterns also provide a clear indication of network usage alterations, such as a change
in end-user behavior, or the unauthorized addition of an application.

QUESTION 4
Which of the following wireless parameters may need to be modified when a new cordless telephone is installed?
A. Encryption type
B. SSID
C. IP address
D. Channel
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
A technician has low signal strength connecting two wireless bridges. Which of the following could be the problem?
A. Low PoE wattage
B. Opposing antenna polarizations
C. Short distance between antennas
D. WPA 2 encryption
Correct Answer: B
The polarization of an antenna is the orientation of the electric field (E-plane) of the radio wave with respect to the
Earth\\’s surface and is determined by the physical structure of the antenna and by its orientation. It has nothing in
common with antenna directionality terms: “horizontal”, “vertical”, and “circular”. Thus, a simple straight wire antenna will
have one polarization when mounted vertically, and a different polarization when mounted horizontally.

QUESTION 6
Which of the following would a technician do to monitor remote traffic through an access point?
A. Enable an SNMP agent
B. Enable network mapping
C. Set monitoring SSID
D. Select WPA2
Correct Answer: A
Large networks with hundreds or thousands of nodes are difficult to manage without a large staff to monitor every
computer. SNMP, which is widely used in local area networks (LANs), lets you monitor network nodes from a
management host. You can monitor network devices such as servers, workstations, printers, routers, bridges, and hubs,
as well as services such as Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) or Windows Internet Name Service (WINS).

QUESTION 7
A company has a remote access VPN and wants to ensure that if a username and password are compromised, the
corporate network will remain secure. Which of the following will allow the company to achieve its security goal?
A. Posture assessment
B. Kerberos
C. TACACS+
D. Two-factor authentication
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
A network administrator wants to perform a test to see if any systems are passing clear text through the network. Which
of the following would be used?
A. Social engineering
B. Packet sniffing
C. Rogue access point
D. Man-in-the-middle
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
A technician is tasked with rewiring a CAT5e SOHO network with 10 existing computers. The users are currently
running at 100 Mbps and would like to be upgraded to 1000 Mbps. Which of the following should the technician do
FIRST?
A. Upgrade the existing computers
B. Purchase a new 802.11ac access point and install.
C. Install CAT6 wiring for the SOHO network
D. Verify the network cards can support 1Gbps
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which of the following can MOST likely cause intermittent connection problems with a CAT5 network cable?
A. Cable has been looped too many times.
B. Cable has a twist tie attached too close to the connector.
C. Cable is too warm.
D. Cable is run too close to a fluorescent light.
Correct Answer: D
Cat 5 is a twisted pair cable for carrying signals. This type of cable is used in structured cabling for computer networks
such as Ethernet. The cable standard provides performance of up to 100 MHz and is suitable for 10BASE-T, 100BASE-
TX (Fast Ethernet), and 1000BASE-T (Gigabit Ethernet).

QUESTION 11
An 802.11b wireless network has a maximum data rate of:
A. 11 Mbps.
B. 20 Mbps.
C. 28 Mbps.
D. 54 Mbps.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
A customer is implementing a VoIP infrastructure using an existing network. The customer currently has all network
devices on the same subnet and would like the phones to be powered without the use of an AC adapter. Which of the
following features should be enabled and configured to allow for reliable performance of the VoIP system? (Select
THREE).
A. WEP
B. PoE
C. VLANs
D. SSL VPN
E. IDS
F. QoS
Correct Answer: BCF
As customer don\\’t want to use Ac adapter so Power over Ethernet is best option (PoE) as in this switch provide power
to phones.Phones will transfer their power requirement via cdp to vlan assigned.And Qos provide the voice packet
priority over the data packets to avoid jitter.

QUESTION 13
Joe has a small office and is looking to replace his phone system with a lower cost solution that requires minimal in-
house support.
Which of the following is the BEST choice?
A. Wide Area Network
B. NAT
C. Virtual PBX
D. Virtual LAN
Correct Answer: C
Virtual PBX, a business phone system providing call routing, follow-me calling, voice-mail, fax- mail, and ACD queues
with no customer installed equipment.

QUESTION 14
Which of the following are considered AAA authentication methods? (Select TWO).
A. Kerberos
B. Radius
C. MS-CHAP
D. TACACS+
E. 802.1X
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 15
There has been an increase in Help Desk tickets related to web portal user accounts being locked out. Which of the
following resources would be used to analyze the issue?
A. Router logs
B. Protocol analyzer
C. Firewall logs
D. Application logs
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
An administrator needs to open ports in the firewall for both DNS and eDNS.
Which of the following default ports would need to be opened on the firewall? (Select TWO).
A. TCP 23
B. TCP 53
C. TCP 123
D. UDP 23
E. UDP 53
F. UDP 123
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 17
A network administrator wants to balance the amount of data between two networking cards. Which of the following can
be used for two or more networking cards?
A. NIC bonding
B. Proxy server
C. Firewall ACLs
D. VLANs
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
A user reports that they are unable to connect to the network. Upon further investigation, a technician notices that the
user has an IP address/subnet mask combination of 192.168.204.255/24. The default gateway for the network is
192.168.204.254.
Which of the following could the user\\’s IP address be changed to so that they could connect to the network?
A. 192.168.204.0/27
B. 192.168.204.1/27
C. 192.168.204.112/24
D. 192.168.204.254/24
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
Which of the following would be the BEST solution for an IDS to monitor known attacks?
A. Host-based
B. Signature-based
C. Network-based
D. Behavior-based
Correct Answer: B
Signature detection involves searching network traffic for a series of bytes or packet sequences known to be malicious.
A key advantage of this detection method is that signatures are easy to develop and understand if you know what
network behavior you\\’re trying to identify.

QUESTION 20
A user is unable to open up websites on the Internet from a browser. The administrator determines that the workstation
can ping its local gateway, but not the remote web server. At which of the following layers of the OSI model does the
problem MOST likely exist?
A. Data link
B. Network
C. Session
D. Physical
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
Which of the following is the definition of a DNS server?
A. Hosts proprietary business applications
B. Translates FQDN\\’s to IP addresses
C. Provides network IDS/IPS security
D. Assigns IP addresses to network devices
Correct Answer: B
Domain Name System (DNS) is the name resolution protocol for TCP/IP networks, such as the Internet. Client
computers query a DNS server to resolve memorable, alphanumeric DNS names to the IP addresses that computers
use to communicate with each other.

QUESTION 22
Which of the following protocols is MOST commonly associated with VoIP?
A. LDAP
B. HTTPS
C. SIP
D. SCP
Correct Answer: C
The Session Initiation Protocol (SIP) is a signaling communications protocol, widely used for controlling multimedia
communication sessions such as voice and video calls over Internet Protocol (IP) networks.

QUESTION 23
Some employees are unable to maintain a wireless network connection. The network\\’s wireless infrastructure is
comprised of three different buildings with the configurations listed below. Wireless network in Building A and C is used
exclusively for internal employees and Building B is used for visitors and requires no additional configuration on their
devices.
Which of the following settings would need to be modified to provide the BEST wireless experience for all employees as
they move between buildings?
Building A Building B Building C Channel: 1 Channel: 6 Channel: 11 Encryption: WPA2 Encryption: Open Encryption:
WPA2 SSID. Corp SSID. Guest SSID. Sales
A. Change Channel in Building B to 7
B. Change Encryption in Building B to match A and C
C. Change Channel in Building C to 1
D. Change SSID in Building C to match Building A
Correct Answer: D
The configuration difference between users in building A and C is that they have same encryption however the SSID is
different so the user has to manually authenticate and connect to the network whenever he will move between buildings.
If the SSID\\’s are same then he will not have to authenticate himself again and he will get automatic connectivity.

QUESTION 24
After a new user moves furniture into a cubicle, the computer does not connect to the network any longer. Which of the
following would be the MOST likely reason? (Select TWO).
A. Bad Ethernet switch port
B. TX/RX reversed
C. Bad connectors
D. Bad patch cable
E. Mismatched MTU
Correct Answer: CD
It could be problem with the bad connector because the user just moved furniture to the cubicle and it is quite possible
that the movement of the furniture has created problem by disrupting the cabling and connections. These two are the
important things which can be broken down whenever there is a physical movement.

QUESTION 25
A network has a large number of users who connect for short periods of time and the network needs to maximize the
number of devices that can be configured using DHCP. Which of the following should be configured to solve this issue?
A. Increase the number of reservations
B. Increase exclude list
C. Decrease lease times
D. Decrease the scope
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 26
Which of the following protocols occurs at Layer 4 of the OSI model?
A. ISDN
B. IPX
C. GRE
D. UDP
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 27
A technician is troubleshooting a problem where data packets are being corrupted. Which of the following connectivity
problems should the technician check?
A. Attenuation
B. Latency
C. Crosstalk
D. External interference
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
Users in several departments are reporting connectivity problems. The technician examines the computer and finds the
following settings. The IP address is 10.0.1.0 with a subnet mask of 255.255.252.0. The default gateway is 10.0.1.1 and
the DNS server is 10.0.0.15. A user can connect to the internet but not servers on other internal subnets. The technician
is not able to connect with a server with an IP of 10.0.2.25.
Which of the following is MOST likely the problem?
A. Default gateway
B. Duplicate IP address
C. Wrong DNS
D. Subnet mask
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 29
Which of the following commands would be used to identify how many hops a data packet makes before reaching its
final destination?
A. route
B. netstat
C. traceroute
D. ping 127.0.0.1
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 30
A network administrator is looking to implement a solution allowing users to utilize a common password to access most
network resources for an organization. Which of the following would BEST provide this functionality?
A. RADIUS
B. Single sign on
C. Multifactor authentication
D. Two-factor authentication
Correct Answer: B
Single sign-on (SSO)is a session/user authentication process that permits a user to enter one name and password in
order to access multiple applications. The process authenticates the user for all the applications they have been given
rights to and eliminates further prompts when they switch applications during a particular session.

QUESTION 31
Which of the following do 802.11 networks use to handle packet collisions from multiple nodes?
A. CSMA/CA
B. CSU/DSU
C. Ethernet Tokens
D. CSMA/CD
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 32
Which of the following describes a single computer that is setup specifically to lure hackers into revealing their methods,
and preventing real attacks on the production network?
A. Evil twin
B. Honeypot
C. DMZ
D. Honeynet
Correct Answer: B
In computer terminology, a honeypot is a trap set to detect, deflect, or in some manner counteract attempts at
unauthorized use of information systems.

QUESTION 33
Which of the following can determine the last time an address lease was renewed on a network device?
A. System log
B. Packet sniffer
C. Time domain reflectometer
D. Stateful packet filter
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 34
A network administrator is adding 24 – 802.3af class 2 VoIP phones and needs to purchase a single PoE switch to
power the phones. Which of the following is the MINIMUM PoE dedicated wattage the switch supports to power all of
the phones at full power?
A. 96W
B. 168W
C. 240W
D. 369.6W
Correct Answer: B
The switch supports 168W to power all the phones at full power.

QUESTION 35
Which of the following transmission methods do DHCP enabled devices use to request an IP address?
A. Broadcast
B. Directed broadcast
C. Unicast
D. Multicast
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 36
A network administrator is configuring PXE boot to reimage a computer lab.
Which of the following must be configured on the existing DHCP server to specify the IP address of the imaging server
from which the clients must boot?
A. Scope
B. Reservation
C. Option
D. Lease
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 37
Which of the following properties of DHCP would a technician use to ensure an IP address is not leased out from the
active scope?
A. Reservations
B. Lease times
C. Removing IPs from the active leases
D. Configuring the DNS options
Correct Answer: A
Reservations are permanent lease assignments that are used to ensure that a specified client on a subnet can always
use the same IP address. You can use DHCP reservations for hosts that require a consistent IP address, but do not
need to be statically configured.

QUESTION 38
A SOHO client has tasked Joe, a technician, with setting up a basic SOHO network to support four laptops and one
desktop PC. The client would also like to have a basic wireless network to use for internal devices only that is secure.
Given the list of requirements, which of the following devices would Joe need to purchase for his client? (Select TWO).
A. IDS
B. Repeater
C. Switch
D. WAP
E. UTM device
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 39
A Linux-based workstation is unable to connect to an IP printer on the same network segment. The printer IP address
settings have been verified. How would a network technician verify IP address settings on the Linux-based workstation?
A. Run the dig command on the workstation.
B. Run the nslookup command on the workstation.
C. Run the ipconfig command on the workstation.
D. Run the ifconfig command on the workstation.
Correct Answer: D
The “ifconfig” command allows the linux/unix operating system to setup network interfaces and allow the user to view
information about the configured network interfaces.

QUESTION 40
A computer has lost network connectivity. The network technician determines the network cable and the cable drop are
both good. Which of the following would the technician use to test the computer\\’s NIC?
A. Cable certifier
B. Throughput tester
C. Loopback plug
D. Multimeter
Correct Answer: C

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New Microsoft Certification 70-774 Dumps Exam Practice Questions And Answers (Q1-Q15)

QUESTION 1
You plan to use Azure Machine Learning to develop a predictive model. You plan to include an Execute Python Script module.
What capability does the module provide?
A. Outputting a file to a network location.
B. Performing interactive debugging of a Python script.
C. Saving the results of a Python script run in a Machine Learning environment to a local file.
D. Visualizing univariate and multivariate summaries by using Python code.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is exactly the same in each question in this series.
A travel agency named Margie’s Travel sells airline tickets to customers in the United States.
Margie’s Travel wants you to provide insights and predictions on flight delays. The agency is considering implementing a system that will communicate to its customers as the flight departure nears about possible delays due to weather conditions. The flight data contains the following attributes:
The weather data contains the following attributes: AirportID, ReadingDate (YYYY/MM/DD HH), SkyConditionVisibility, WeatherType, WindSpeed, StationPressure, PressureChange, and HourlyPrecip.
You have an untrained Azure Machine Learning model that you plan to train to predict flight delays.
You need to assess the variability of the dataset and the reliability of the predictions from the model.
Which module should you use?
A. Cross-Validate Model
B. Evaluate Model
C. Tune Model Hyperparameters
D. Train Model
E. Score Model
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
You have data about the following:
You need to predict whether a user will like a particular movie.
Which Matchbox recommender should you use?
A. Item Recommendation
B. Related Items
C. Rating Prediction
D. Related Users
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is exactly the same in each question in this series.
A travel agency named Margie’s Travel sells airline tickets to customers in the United States.
Margie’s Travel wants you to provide insights and predictions on flight delays. The agency is considering implementing a system that will communicate to its customers as the flight departure nears about possible delays due to weather conditions. The flight data contains the following attributes:
The weather data contains the following attributes: AirportID, ReadingDate (YYYY/MM/DD HH), SkyConditionVisibility, WeatherType, WindSpeed, StationPressure, PressureChange, and HourlyPrecip.
You plan to predict flight delays that are 30 minutes or more. You need to build a training model that accurately fits the data. The solution must minimize over fitting and minimize data leakage.
Which attribute should you remove?
A. OriginAirportID
B. DepDel
C. DepDel30
D. Carrier
E. DestAirportID
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this sections, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
You are working on an Azure Machine Learning experiment.
You have the dataset configured as shown in the following table.

You need to ensure that you can compare the performance of the models and add annotations to the results.
Solution: You connect the Score Model modules from each trained model as inputs for the Evaluate Model module, and use the Execute R Script module.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series.
Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question. 70-774 dumps
You have a dataset that contains a column named Column1. Column1 is empty.
You need to omit Column1 from the dataset. The solution must use a native module.
Which module should you use?
A. Execute Python Script
B. Tune Model Hyperparameters
C. Normalize Data
D. Select Columns in Dataset
E. Import Data
F. Edit Metadata
G. Clip Values
H. Clean Missing Data
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
You are building an Azure Machine Learning workflow by using Azure Machine Learning Studio.
You create an Azure notebook that supports the Microsoft Cognitive Toolkit.
You need to ensure that the stochastic gradient descent (SGD) configuration maximizes the samples per second and supports parallel modeling that is managed by a parameter server.
Which SGD algorithm should you use?
A. DataParallelASGD
B. DataParallelSGD
C. ModelAveragingSGD
D. BlockMomentumSGD
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
You have an Azure Machine Learning environment.
You are evaluating whether to use R code or Python.
Which three actions can you perform by using both R code and Python in the Machine Learning environment? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Preprocess, cleanse, and group data.
B. Score a training model.
C. Create visualizations.
D. Create an untrained model that can be used with the Train Model module.
E. Implement feature ranking.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 9
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series.
Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question.
You need to remove rows that have an empty value in a specific column. The solution must use a native module.
Which module should you use?
A. Execute Python Script
B. Tune Model Hyperparameters
C. Normalize Data
D. Select Columns in Dataset
E. Import Data
F. Edit Metadata
G. Clip Values
H. Clean Missing Data
Correct Answer: H

QUESTION 10
You are building an Azure Machine Learning experiment.
You need to transform 47 numeric columns into a set of 10 linearly uncorrelated features.
Which module should you add to the experiment?
A. Principal Component Analysis
B. K-Means Clustering
C. Normalize Data
D. Group Data into Bins
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
You have a dataset that is missing values in a column named Column3. Column3 is correlated to two columns named Column4 and Column5. You need to improve the accuracy of the dataset, while minimizing data loss.
What should you do?
A. Replace the missing values in Column3 by using probabilistic Principal Component Analysis (PCA).
B. Remove all of the rows that have the missing values in Column4 and Column5.
C. Replace the missing values in Column3 with a mean value.
D. Remove the rows that have the missing values in Column3.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
HOTSPOT
You need to use R code in a Transact-SQL statement to merge the repeating values 1 through 6 with Col1 in a table.
Which statement should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 13
DRAG DROP
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is exactly the same in each question in this series.
You plan to create a predictive analytics solution for credit risk assessment and fraud prediction in Azure Machine Learning. The Machine Learning workspace for the solution will be shared with other users in your organization. You will add assets to projects and conduct experiments in the workspace.
The experiments will be used for training models that will be published to provide scoring from web services.
The experiment for fraud prediction will use Machine Learning modules and APIs to train the models and will predict probabilities in an Apache Hadoop ecosystem.
You finish training the model and are ready to publish a predictive web service that will provide the users with the ability to specify the data source and the save location of the results. The model includes a Split Data module.
Which two actions should you perform to convert the Machine Learning experiment to a predictive web service? To answer, drag the appropriate actions to the correct targets.
Each action may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 14
DRAG DROP
You have an Execute R Script module that has one input from either a Partition and Sample module or a Web service input module.
You need to preprocess tweets by using R. The solution must meet the following requirements:
How should you complete the R code? To answer, drag the appropriate values to the correct targets. Each value may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar panes or scroll to view content. 70-774 dumps
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 15
DRAG DROP
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is exactly the same in each question in this series.
A travel agency named Margie’s Travel sells airline tickets to customers in the United States.
Margie’s Travel wants you to provide insights and predictions on flight delays. The agency is considering implementing a system that will communicate to its customers as the flight departure nears about possible delays due to weather conditions. The flight data contains the following attributes:
The weather data contains the following attributes: AirportID, ReadingDate (YYYY/MM/DD HH), SkyConditionVisibility, WeatherType, WindSpeed, StationPressure, PressureChange, and HourlyPrecip.
You need to remove the bias and to identify the columns in the input dataset that have the greatest predictive power.
Which module should you use for each requirement? To answer, drag the appropriate modules to the correct requirements. Each module may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

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New Microsoft MCSE 70-342 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (1-10)

QUESTION 1
You plan to deploy 20 Client Access servers that will have Exchange Server 2013 installed.
You need to prepare the certificate required for the planned deployment. The solution must ensure that the same certificate can be used on all of the Client Access servers.
What should you do first?
A. On one of the Client Access servers, run the New-ExchangeCertificate cmdlet and specify the privatekeyexportable parameter.
B. On all of the Client Access servers, run the Get-ExchangeCertificate cmdlet.
C. On one of the Client Access servers, run the New-ExchangeCertificate cmdlet and specify the binaryencoded parameter.
D. On one of the Client Access servers, start the Certificates console and run the Certificate Import Wizard.
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
We need to create a new certificate. We make it exportable.
Note:
Use the New-ExchangeCertificate cmdlet to create a self-signed certificate, renew an existing self-signed certificate, or generate a new certificate request for obtaining a certificate from a certification authority (CA).

QUESTION 2
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization that contains two servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.

EX1 and EX2 are members of a database availability group (DAG) named DAG1. You have a database named DB1 that replicates to EX1 and EX2.
EX1 fails.
You discover that DB1 does not mount on EX2.
You view the status of the mailbox databases as shown in the following table.

You need to ensure that the database attempts to mount on EX2 if EX1 fails.
What should you change?
A. The AutoDatabaseMountDial setting to Lossless
B. The AutoDatabaseMountDial setting to BestAvailabilty
C. The activation preference of DB1\EX2
D. The activation preference of DB1\EX1
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
* The MailboxServer.AutoDatabaseMountDial property gets or sets the automatic database mount behavior for an Exchange server that is running the Mailbox server role in a continuous replication environment after a database failover.
* The AutoDatabaseMountDial property specifies the automatic database mount behavior of a Mailbox server after a failover. Each behavior is based on the copy queue length, or the number of logs that are recognized by the passive copy that need to be replicated. If the copy queue length is greater than the value specified for the behavior, the database does not automatically mount. If the copy queue length is less than or equal to the value specified for the behavior, the Mailbox server tries to copy the remaining logs to the passive copy and mounts the database.
* BestAvailability
The database automatically mounts immediately after a failover if the queue length is less than or equal to 12.
Incorrect:
Not A: Lossless
The database does not automatically mount until all logs generated on the active device are copied to the passive device

QUESTION 3
Your company has offices in Tokyo, Bangkok, and Shanghai.
All connections to the Internet are routed through an Internet connection in the Tokyo office. All of the offices connect to each other by using a WAN link.
The network contains 10 servers that have Exchange Server 2010 installed. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.

You plan to deploy 10 servers that will have Exchange Server 2013 installed.
The servers will be configured as shown in the following table.

Each site has an IP-PBX that provides telephony services for the mailboxes in that site by using unsecured SIP over TCP 5070. The IP-PBX uses the same port to connect to multiple SIP peers. 70-342 dumps
You need to recommend which tasks must be performed to ensure that the Unified Messaging (UM) features are available to the mailboxes if a single server fails.
Which three actions should you include in the recommendation? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)
A. Configure the Exchange Server 2013 Mailbox servers to listen to unsecured SIP on TCP 5070.
B. Configure the Exchange Server 2013 Client Access servers to listen to unsecured SIP on TCP 5070.
C. Install the Client Access server role on the Exchange Server 2013 servers in the Shanghai and Bangkok offices.
D. Configure the Exchange Server 2013 Mailbox servers as additional SIP peers that contain new pilot identifiers.
E. Configure the Exchange Server 2013 Client Access servers as additional SIP peers that contain new pilot identifiers.
Correct Answer: BCE

Explanation:
Note:
* Exchange 2013 Unified Messaging offers administrators:
/ A complete voice mail system
Unified Messaging offers a complete voice mail solution using a single store, transport, and directory infrastructure. The store is provided by a Mailbox server and forwarding of incoming calls from a VoIP gateway or IP PBX is handled by a Client Access server. All email and voice mail messages can be managed from a single management point, using a single administration interface and tool set.
/ An Exchange security model
The Microsoft Exchange Unified Messaging service on a Mailbox server and the Microsoft Exchange Unified Messaging Call Router service on a Client Access server run as a single Exchange server account.
Consolidation
* The client access server (CAS) is a server role that handles all client connections to Exchange Server 2010 and Exchange 2013. The CAS supports all client connections to Exchange Server from Microsoft Outlook and Outlook Web App, as well as ActiveSync applications. The CAS also provides access to free/busy data in Exchange calendars.
The CAS is one of five server roles in Exchange Server 2007 and Exchange 2010, and one of two server roles in Exchange Server 2013. It must be installed in every Exchange Server organization and on every Active Directory (AD) site that has the Exchange mailbox server role installed.

QUESTION 4
You have an Exchange Server organization that contains five servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.

You need to create a Lync Server SIP Unified Messaging (UM) dial plan to enable voice integration between Lync Server and Exchange Server. Which three Exchange servers should you associate to the UM dial plans? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)
A. EX1
B. EX2
C. EX3
D. EX4
E. EX5
Correct Answer: CDE

Explanation:
C: You can enable Unified Messaging (UM) in Microsoft Exchange Server 2010. You must enable the Exchange computer running the Unified Messaging server role before the Unified Messaging server can process calls for UM-enabled Exchange 2010 recipients in your Exchange organization. However, the Unified Messaging server also must be added to a UM dial plan before it can process calls for Unified Messaging.
D, E:
* Requirements and Recommendations
Client Access and Mailbox. In Microsoft Exchange Server 2013, Exchange UM runs as a service on these servers.
* Deploy the Exchange Mailbox server roles in each Exchange Unified Messaging (UM) forest where you want to enable users for Exchange UM.
Reference: Configuring Unified Messaging on Microsoft Exchange Server to Work with Lync Server 2013

QUESTION 5
You have a hybrid deployment of Exchange Server 2013 and Microsoft Office 365.
The network does not have Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) 2.0 installed.
A user named User1 reports that he cannot access his mailbox because his account is locked out.
You verify that the mailbox of User1 is hosted on Office 365.
You need to unlock the account of User1.
Which cmdlet should you run?
A. Set-MailUser
B. Set-MSolUser
C. Set-Mailbox
D. Set-ADUser
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
Applies To: Office 365, Windows Azure, Windows Intune
The Set-MsolUser cmdlet is used to update a user object.
Parameters include:
-BlockCredential
When true, the user will not be able to sign in using their user ID.
Incorrect:
Not C: Set-Mailbox
Use the Set-Mailbox cmdlet to modify the settings of an existing mailbox.
Applies to: Exchange Server 2013, Exchange Online

QUESTION 6
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization named adatum.com. The organization contains five Mailbox servers.
You need to prevent a user named User8 from permanently deleting an email message in his mailbox.
What should you do on the mailbox of User8?
A. Configure an in-place hold.
B. Create an Archive mailbox.
C. Configure a retention hold.
D. Create a Retention tag.
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
In Exchange 2013, you can use In-Place Hold to accomplish the following goals:
Place user mailboxes on hold and preserve mailbox items immutably
Preserve mailbox items deleted by users or automatic deletion processes such as MRM
Use query-based In-Place Hold to search for and retain items matching specified criteria Preserve items indefinitely or for a specific duration
Place a user on multiple holds for different cases or investigations
Keep In-Place Hold transparent from the user by not having to suspend MRM
Enable In-Place eDiscovery searches of items placed on hold
Note:
When a reasonable expectation of litigation exists, organizations are required to preserve electronically stored information (ESI), including email that’s relevant to the case. This expectation often exists before the specifics of the case are known, and preservation is often broad. Organizations may need to preserve all email related to a specific topic or all email for certain individuals.
Failure to preserve email can expose an organization to legal and financial risks such as scrutiny of the organization’s records retention and discovery processes, adverse legal judgments, sanctions, or fines.

QUESTION 7
You are a network administrator for a company named Humongous Insurance. Humongous Insurance has an Active Directory forest that contains two domains.
You install the Active Directory Rights Management Services server role on a server named ADRMS1. The Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS) server uses an internal certification authority (CA) for all certificates.
You plan to provide users with the ability to use AD RMS to protect all of the email messages sent to a partner company named Contoso, Ltd.
Contoso does not have AD RMS deployed.
You need to identify which components from the Humongous Insurance network must be accessible to Contoso to ensure that the users at Contoso can open protected messages.
Which two components should you identify? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. the AD RMS cluster
B. the certificate revocation list (CRL)
C. the Active Directory domain controllers
D. the Client Access servers
E. the Mailbox servers
F. the Global Catalog servers
Correct Answer: BC

Explanation:
B: The CRL is exactly what its name implies: a list of subscribers paired with digital certificate status. The list enumerates revoked certificates along with the reason(s) for revocation. The dates of certificate issue, and the entities that issued them, are also included. In addition, each list contains a proposed date for the next release. When a potential user attempts to access a server, the server allows or denies access based on the CRL entry for that particular user. 70-342 dumps
C: If federation cannot be implemented and the external organization cannot implement their own AD RMS infrastructure, hosting the user accounts can be the best option. However, the cost of managing such accounts (for both the IT department and each user) must be considered. In this case, the users will need to be authenticated by a domain controller.

QUESTION 8
You have an Exchange Server organization that contains four servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.

You are deploying Unified Messaging (UM).
You create a dial plan named UMPlan1 and a UM mailbox policy named UMPlan Mailbox Policy.
You need to ensure that all voice mail sent to the existing extension of a user is delivered to the user’s mailbox.
Which three actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)
A. Create a UM hunt group
B. Create a UM IP gateway.
C. Configure the IP-PBX to route calls to EX3 and EX4
D. Configure the IP-PBX to route calls to EX I and EX2.
E. Assign EX I and EX2 to UMPlan1.
F. Assign EX3 and EX4 to UMPlan1.
Correct Answer: ABC

Explanation:
* When you’re setting up Unified Messaging (UM), you must configure the IP PBXs on your network to communicate with the Client Access servers running the Microsoft Exchange Unified Messaging Call Router service and the Mailbox servers running the Microsoft Exchange Unified Messaging service in your Exchange organization. You must also configure the Client Access and Mailbox servers to communicate with the IP PBXs.
C: A Unified Messaging (UM) IP gateway represents a physical Voice over IP (VoIP) gateway, IP Private Branch eXchange (PBX), or session border controller (SBC) hardware device.
* Here are the basic steps for connecting VoIP gateways, IP PBXs, SIP-enabled PBXs, or SBCs to Client Access and Mailbox servers:
Step 1: Install the Client Access and Mailbox servers in your organization.
Step 2: Create and configure a Telephone Extension, SIP URI, or E.164 UM dial plan.
Step 3: Create and configure a UM IP gateway. You must create and configure a UM IP gateway for each VoIP gateway, IP PBX, SIP-enabled PBX, or SBC that will be accepting incoming calls and sending outgoing calls.
Step 4: Create a new UM hunt group if needed. If you create a UM IP gateway and don’t specify a UM dial plan, a UM hunt group will be automatically created.
Incorrect:
B, D:
The question states, “You need to ensure that all voice mail sent to the existing extension of a user is delivered to the user’s mailbox”. The dial plan is therefore a Telephone Extension dial plan. Client Access and Mailbox servers cannot be associated with Telephone Extension or E.164 dial plans.

QUESTION 9
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization.
You purchase a Microsoft Office 365 subscription and configure a hybrid deployment.
The network contains an SMTP relay server named smarthost.contoso.com. The server is configured to use a certificate that has a subject name of smarthost.contoso.com.
All users have Microsoft Outlook 2013 installed on their client computer. Outlook 2013 is configured to connect to mail.contoso.com.
All Exchange servers have a certificate that has a subject name of mail.contoso.com.
You discover that email messages sent from on-premises users are not delivered to Office 365 recipients. You discover that the Send connector for Office 365 uses a smart host of smarthost.contoso.com.
You need to ensure that the on-premises users can send email messages to the Office 365 recipients.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Run the Hybrid Configuration Wizard again.
B. Configure the Microsoft Exchange Online Protection (EOP) Send connector to use smarthost.contoso.com
C. Configure the centralized mail transport option.
D. Remove the smart host from the Send connector.
E. Assign a certificate that has a subject name of smarthost.contoso.com to the Send connector.
Correct Answer: BD

Explanation:
A: Creating and configuring a hybrid deployment with the Hybrid Configuration wizard is now a single process in Microsoft Exchange Server 2013. First, the wizard creates the HybridConfiguration object in your on-premises Active Directory.
This Active Directory object stores the hybrid configuration information for the hybrid deployment and is updated by the Hybrid Configuration wizard. Next, the wizard gathers existing on-premises Exchange and Active Directory topology configuration data, Office 365 tenant and Exchange Online configuration data, defines several organization parameters and then runs an extensive sequence of configuration tasks in both the on-premises and Exchange Online organizations.
E:
Note:
* By default, Microsoft Exchange Server 2013 doesn’t allow you to send mail outside of your domain. To send mail outside your domain, you need to create a Send connector.
* Use the Set-SendConnector cmdlet to modify a Send connector.
/ Parameters include TlsCertificateName
The TlsCertificateName parameter specifies the X.509 certificate to use with TLS sessions and secure mail. Valid input for this parameter is [I]Issuer[S]Subject. The Issuer value is found in the certificate’s Issuer field, and the Subject value is found in the certificate’s Subject field. You can find these values by running the Get-ExchangeCertificate cmdlet.

QUESTION 10
You have a server named Server1 that has Exchange Server 2013 installed.
Users access their mailbox by using Microsoft Outlook 2010 and Outlook Web App.
You enable auditing for all of the mailboxes.
You need to identify when a mailbox is accessed by someone other than the owner of the mailbox.
What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)
A. Export the administrator audit log.
B. Run an administrator role group report.
C. Export the mailbox audit log.
D. Run a non-owner mailbox access report.
E. Review the security event log.
Correct Answer: CD

Explanation:
C: Use the Auditing tab to run reports or export entries from the mailbox audit log and the administrator audit log. / The mailbox audit log records whenever a mailbox is accessed by someone other than the person who owns the mailbox. This can help you determine who has accessed a mailbox and what they have done. 70-342 dumps
/ The administrator audit log records any action, based on a Windows PowerShell cmdlet, performed by an administrator. This can help you troubleshoot configuration issues or identify the cause of security- or compliance-related problems.
D: Run a Non-Owner Mailbox Access Report
Use this report to find mailboxes that have been accessed by someone other than the person who owns the mailbox.

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Best Huawei HCNA-Cloud H13-511 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (Q1-Q20)

QUESTION 1
Which of the following statements about STP Designated Port is true?
A. Each of the bridge can have one Designated Port only.
B. Designated Port is responsible for forwarding packets to its connected network segments.
C. The only path leading to the Root Bridge is through Designated Port.
D. Designated Port forwards the data packet from its corresponding switch to the Root Switch.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which of the following statements is not the advantage of STP?
A. STP can manage the redundant links. When the working link is down, network connectivity can be restored.
B. STP can prevent loops
C. STP can prevent broadcast storm
D. STP can save network bandwidth
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which of the following statements about the link failure detection in STP protocol is not true?
A. When network topology is stable, the Designated Port sends BPDU packet at every Hello Time interval.
B. When network topology is stable, BPDU packets will be transmitted periodically.
C. When the port does not receive new BPDU within a certain interval, the old configuration BPDU will time out and the link failure can be detected.
D. The port sends Configuration BPDU at every Hello Time interval. When the link fails, Configuration BPDU can not be sent out. As a result, this port can detect the link failure.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which of the following statements about STP is not true?
A. STP can manage redundant links.
B. STP can block redundant links to eliminate loops
C. STP can prevent temporary loss of connectivity
D. STP can make LAN switch operate normally in a network with loops
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
According to the STP protocol, a certain field in the BPDU identifies the root switch. That is, if the BPDU sent by a switch contains this field, this switch is considered as the root switch. What is this field?
A. Root Identifier
B. Root Path Cost
C. Bridge Identifier
D. Port Identifier
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
The Layer 2 packet header in EAPoL packets is | DMAC | SMAC | TYPE | EAPOL | FCS |. H13-511 dumps Which statements are true? (Select 3 Answers)
A. The destination address of packets is a specified MAC address.
B. The destination address of packets is a unicast MAC address.
C. EAPoL packets cannot be forwarded by switches.
D. The source MAC address of packets is the MAC address of the interface that sends packets.
Correct Answer: A,C,D

QUESTION 7
Which statement about the hybrid interface is true?
A. A hybrid interface can only be connected to network device.
B. A hybrid interface can only be connected to host.
C. A hybrid interface can be connected to host or network device.
D. A hybrid interface cannot be configured with VLAN ID.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which statements are false?
A. The VLAN mapping function is usually configured on the edge node of a public network.
B. The VLAN mapping function can save VLAN resources on a public network.
C. VLAN mapping allows private networks on different VLANs to communicate with each other over the ISP network.
D. VLAN mapping allows only the private networks on the same VLAN to communicate with each other.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which statements about the VLAN on S series switches are true? (Select 2 Answers)
A. The VLAN IDs on the switch range from 1 to 4090.
B. The switch has a default VLAN.
C. The priority value in the VLAN tag can be changed on the switch.
D. A VLAN tag contains one byte.
Correct Answer: B,C

QUESTION 10
If the customer requires high mobility and easy management, the staff of different departments can be added to different VLANs. In addition, these VLANs are located on different IP subnets.
Which VLAN allocation mode can meet these requirements?
A. VLAN allocation based on source IP addresses
B. VLAN allocation based on destination IP addresses
C. VLAN allocation based on source IP addresses and source MAC addresses
D. VLAN allocation based on destination MAC addresses and destination IP addresses
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which statements about the access interface are true? (Select 3 Answers)
A. Only the VLAN whose ID is the same as the PVID of the access interface are allowed on the access interface.
B. When receiving an untagged frame, the access interface adds its own PVID to the frame.
C. The access interface sends only untagged frames to the peer device.
D. None of the above.
Correct Answer: A,B,C

QUESTION 12
Which statements about MUX VLAN are true? (Select 2 Answers)
A. MUX VLAN contains a principal VLAN and subordinate VLANs. The principal VLAN and subordinate VLANs cannot communicate.
B. MUX VLAN contains a principal VLAN and subordinate VLANs. The subordinate VLANs are classified into subordinate separate VLANs and subordinate group VLANs. The interfaces in the subordinate group VLAN can communicate with each other.
C. The principal VLAN and subordinate VLANs can communicate.
D. The interfaces of different subordinate separate VLANs can communicate with each other, but cannot communicate with the interfaces in the principal VLAN.
Correct Answer: B,C

QUESTION 13
Which statement about VLAN mapping is true?
A. The interface configured with VLAN mapping must be a hybrid interface.
B. The same VLANs on different interfaces cannot be mapped to different VLANs.
C. Different VLANs on the same interface can be mapped to the same VLAN.
D. Any types of interfaces can be configured with VLAN mapping.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
Which VLAN assignment methods are supported by the Huawei S9300? H13-511 dumps (Select 3 Answers)
A. Assigning VLANs based on Layer 7 protocols
B. Assigning VLANs based on protocols
C. Assigning VLANs based on IP subnets
D. Assigning VLANs based on MAC addresses
Correct Answer: B,C,D

QUESTION 15
Which statements about VLAN aggregation are true? (Select 3 Answers)
A. “multiple” VLANs (broadcast domains) are on the same physical network; therefore, different VLANs belong to the same subnet.
B. VLAN aggregation can save IP addresses.
C. Only the super VLAN requires an IP address, but sub-VLANs do not need.
D. The VLAN that is used to separate broadcast domains is called super VLAN.
Correct Answer: A,B,C

QUESTION 16
Which statement about the VLAN on a Layer 2 switch is true?
A. The CFI in the VLAN tag specifies whether the priority in the VLAN tag is valid.
B. The VLAN tag is located in the Layer 2 header of a packet.
C. The CFI in the VLAN tag contains two bits.
D. A VLAN on the switch is a broadcast domain. The broadcast domains are separated.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
Which statements about VLAN allocation are true? (Select 3 Answers)
A. The IP subnet VLAN is used to send the packets from the specified network segment or IP address over the specified VLAN.
B. The MAC address- or IP subnet-based VLAN is valid for only the untagged packets.
C. The protocol-based VLAN has a higher priority than the IP subnet-based VLAN.
D. The protocol-based VLAN indicates that service types on the network are bound to VLANs.
Correct Answer: A,B,D

QUESTION 18
When the GVRP registration mode is FORBIDDEN, no VLAN can be created or registered on the interface. In addition, which VLANs are deregistered on the interface?
A. All VLANs except VLAN 1
B. All VLANs except VLAN 4095
C. All VLANs
D. All VLANs except the VLAN specified by the user
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
The dot1x command is used to enable 802.1x authentication globally or on an interface. Which statements about the undo dot1x command are true? (Select 3 Answers)
A. It is used to disable 802.1x authentication globally.
B. It will disconnect online users from the interface; therefore, use the command with caution.
C. It is used to disable 802.1x authentication on an interface.
D. Ensure that there are no online users before you run the undo dot1x command. Otherwise, running the undo dot1x command fails.
Correct Answer: A,C,D

QUESTION 20
After detecting a user with a new MAC address, the switch initiates an EAP authentication request.
If the client does not respond and the MAC address bypass authentication is not configured, H13-511 dumps which statement is false?
A. If the client does not respond after the number of authentication requests reaches a specified
value, the switch considers that the client software is not installed.
B. All permissions of the user are prohibited.
C. The user is allowed to access only the isolated zone.
D. Detection is initiated again after a period of time.
Correct Answer: B

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Real (1-30) questions and answers for Cisco CCNA 200-125 dumps exam

QUESTION 1
Which technology supports the stateless assignment of IPv6 addresses?
A. DNS
B. DHCPv6
C. DHCP
D. autoconfiguration
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 2
What are two requirements for an HSRP group? (Choose two.)
A. exactly one active router
B. one or more standby routers
C. one or more backup virtual routers
D. exactly one standby active router
E. exactly one backup virtual router
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 3
After you configure the Loopback0 interface, which command can you enter to verify the status of the interface and determine whether fast switching is enabled?
A. Router#show ip interface loopback 0
B. Router#show run
C. Router#show interface loopback 0
D. Router#show ip interface brief
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which command sequence can you enter to create VLAN 20 and assign it to an interface on a switch?
A. Switch(config)#vlan 20
Switch(config)#Interface gig x/y
Switch(config-if)#switchport access vlan 20
B. Switch(config)#Interface gig x/y
Switch(config-if)#vlan 20
Switch(config-vlan)#switchport access vlan 20
C. Switch(config)#vlan 20
Switch(config)#Interface vlan 20
Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk native vlan 20
D. Switch(config)#vlan 20
Switch(config)#Interface vlan 20
Switch(config-if)#switchport access vlan 20
E. Switch(config)#vlan 20
Switch(config)#Interface vlan 20
Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk allowed vlan 20
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which three commands can you use to set a router boot image? 200-125 dumps (Choose three.)
A. Router(config)# boot system flash c4500-p-mz.121-20.bin
B. Router(config)# boot system tftp c7300-js-mz.122-33.SB8a.bin
C. Router(config)#boot system rom c7301-advipservicesk9-mz.124-24.T4.bin
D. Router> boot flash:c180x-adventerprisek9-mz-124-6T.bin
E. Router(config)#boot flash:c180x-adventerprisek9-mz-124-6T.bin
F. Router(config)#boot bootldr bootflash:c4500-jk9s-mz.122-23f.bin
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 6
Which two statements about IPv6 and routing protocols are true? (Choose two.)
A. Link-local addresses are used to form routing adjacencies.
B. OSPFv3 was developed to support IPv6 routing.
C. EIGRP, OSPF, and BGP are the only routing protocols that support IPv6.
D. Loopback addresses are used to form routing adjacencies.
E. EIGRPv3 was developed to support IPv6 routing.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 7
If primary and secondary root switches with priority 16384 both experience catastrophic losses, which tertiary switch can take over?
A. a switch with priority 20480
B. a switch with priority 8192
C. a switch with priority 4096
D. a switch with priority 12288
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which two statements about late collisions are true? (Choose two.)
A. They may indicate a duplex mismatch.
B. By definition, they occur after the 512th bit of the frame has been transmitted.
C. They indicate received frames that did not pass the FCS match.
D. They are frames that exceed 1518 bytes.
E. They occur when CRC errors and interference occur on the cable.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 9
Which command can you enter to set the default route for all traffic to an interface?
A. router(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 GigabitEthernet0/1
B. router(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 GigabitEthernet0/1
C. router(config-router)#default-information originate
D. router(config-router)#default-information originate always
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which two spanning-tree port states does RSTP combine to allow faster convergence? (Choose two.)
A. blocking
B. listening
C. learning
D. forwarding
E. discarding
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 11
If a router has four interfaces and each interface is connected to four switches, how many broadcast domains are present on the router?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which command enables IPv6 forwarding on a Cisco router? 200-125 dumps
A. ipv6 local
B. ipv6 host
C. ipv6 unicast-routing
D. ipv6 neighbor
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit. What is the most appropriate summarization for these routes?

A. 10.0.0.0 /21
B. 10.0.0.0 /22
C. 10.0.0.0 /23
D. 10.0.0.0 /24
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
Which set of commands is recommended to prevent the use of a hub in the access layer?
A. switch(config-if)#switchport mode trunk
switch(config-if)#switchport port-security maximum 1
B. switch(config-if)#switchport mode trunk
switch(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address 1
C. switch(config-if)#switchport mode access
switch(config-if)#switchport port-security maximum 1
D. switch(config-if)#switchport mode access
switch(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address 1
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
A router has learned three possible routes that could be used to reach a destination network. One route is from EIGRP and has a composite metric of 20514560. Another route is from OSPF with a metric of 782.
The last is from RIPv2 and has a metric of 4. Which route or routes will the router install in the routing table?
A. the OSPF route
B. the EIGRP route
C. the RIPv2 route
D. all three routes
E. the OSPF and RIPv2 routes
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Two routers named Atlanta and Brevard are connected via their serial interfaces as illustrated, but they are unable to communicate. The Atlanta router is known to have the correct configuration.

Given the partial configurations, identify the fault on the Brevard router that is causing the lack of connectivity
A. incompatible IP address
B. insufficient bandwidth
C. incorrect subnet mask
D. incompatible encapsulation
E. link reliability too low
F. IPCP closed
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
A network administrator needs to configure a serial link between the main office and a remote location. The router at the remote office is a non-Cisco router. 200-125 dumps How should the network administrator configure the serial interface of the main office router to make the connection?
A. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252
Main(config-if)# no shut
B. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252
Main(config-if)# encapsulation ppp
Main(config-if)# no shut
C. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252
Main(config-if)# encapsulation frame-relay
Main(config-if)# authentication chap
Main(config-if)# no shut
D. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)#ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252
Main(config-if)#encapsulation ietf
Main(config-if)# no shut
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
Which Layer 2 protocol encapsulation type supports synchronous and asynchronous circuits and has builtin security mechanisms?
A. HDLC
B. PPP
C. X.25
D. Frame Relay
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
Refer to the exhibit. The two connected ports on the switch are not turning orange or green. What would be the most effective steps to troubleshoot this physical layer problem? (Choose three.)

A. Ensure that the Ethernet encapsulations match on the interconnected router and switch ports.
B. Ensure that cables A and B are straight-through cables.
C. Ensure cable A is plugged into a trunk port.
D. Ensure the switch has power.
E. Reboot all of the devices.
F. Reseat all cables.
Correct Answer: BDF

QUESTION 20
A network administrator is troubleshooting the OSPF configuration of routers R1 and R2. The routers cannot establish an adjacency relationship on their common Ethernet link.

The graphic shows the output of the show ip ospf interface e0 command for routers R1 and R2. Based on the information in the graphic, what is the cause of this problem?
A. The OSPF area is not configured properly.
B. The priority on R1 should be set higher.
C. The cost on R1 should be set higher.
D. The hello and dead timers are not configured properly.
E. A backup designated router needs to be added to the network.
F. The OSPF process ID numbers must match.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 21
What will happen if a private IP address is assigned to a public interface connected to an ISP?
A. Addresses in a private range will be not be routed on the Internet backbone.
B. Only the ISP router will have the capability to access the public network.
C. The NAT process will be used to translate this address to a valid IP address.
D. A conflict of IP addresses happens, because other public routers can use the same range.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
Refer to the exhibit. The Bigtime router is unable to authenticate to the Littletime router. 200-125 dumps What is the cause of the problem?

A. The usernames are incorrectly configured on the two routers.
B. The passwords do not match on the two routers.
C. CHAP authentication cannot be used on a serial interface.
D. The routers cannot be connected from interface S0/0 to interface S0/0.
E. With CHAP authentication, one router must authenticate to another router. The routers cannot be configured to authenticate to each other.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 23
What will be the result if the following configuration commands are implemented on a Cisco switch?
Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security
Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky
A. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the startup-configuration file.
B. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the running-configuration file.
C. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the VLAN database.
D. Statically configured MAC addresses are saved in the startup-configuration file if frames from that address are received.
E. Statically configured MAC addresses are saved in the running-configuration file if frames from that address are received.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 24
What are three characteristics of the TCP protocol? (Choose three.)
A. It uses a single SYN-ACK message to establish a connection.
B. The connection is established before data is transmitted.
C. It ensures that all data is transmitted and received by the remote device.
D. It supports significantly higher transmission speeds than UDP.
E. It requires applications to determine when data packets must be retransmitted.
F. It uses separate SYN and ACK messages to establish a connection.
Correct Answer: BCF

QUESTION 25
which three technical services support cloud computing ?
A. network-monitored power sources
B. layer 3 network routing
C. ip localization
D. redundant connections
E. VPN connectivity
F. extended SAN services
Correct Answer: CDF

QUESTION 26
What is the effect of using the service password-encryption command?
A. Only the enable password will be encrypted.
B. It will encrypt all current and future passwords.
C. It will encrypt the secret password and remove the enable secret password from the configuration.
D. Only the enable secret password will be encrypted.
E. Only passwords configured after the command has been entered will be encrypted.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 27
What are two benefits of using a single OSPF area network design? 200-125 dumps (Choose two.)
A. It is less CPU intensive for routers in the single area.
B. It reduces the types of LSAs that are generated.
C. It removes the need for virtual links.
D. It increases LSA response times.
E. It reduces the number of required OSPF neighbor adjacencies.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 28
Which protocol is the Cisco proprietary implementation of FHRP?
A. HSRP
B. VRRP
C. GLBP
D. CARP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
What OSPF command, when configured, will include all interfaces into area 0?
A. network 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 area 0
B. network 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 area 0
C. network 255.255.255.255 0.0.0.0 area 0
D. network all-interfaces area 0
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
What are two enhancements that OSPFv3 supports over OSPFv2? (Choose two.)
A. It requires the use of ARP.
B. It can support multiple IPv6 subnets on a single link.
C. It supports up to 2 instances of OSPFv3 over a common link.
D. It routes over links rather than over networks.
Correct Answer: BD

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Best Cisco CCDE 352-001 dumps exam questions and answers (1-20)

QUESTION 1
A new video multicast application is deployed in the network. The application team wants to use the 239.0.0.1 multicast group to stream the video to users. They want to know if this choice will impact the existing multicast design.
What impact will their choice have on the existing multicast design?
A. Because 239.0.0.1 is a private multicast range, a flood of PIM packets that have to be processed by the CPU and hosts will be sent by the routers in the network.
B. Because 239.0.0.1 is a private multicast range, the rendezvous point has to send out constant group updates that will have to be processed by the CPU and hosts.
C. The multicast application sends too many packets into the network and the network infrastructure drops packets.
D. The 239.0.0.1 group address maps to a system MAC address, and all multicast traffic will have to be sent to the CPU and flooded out all ports.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
In which two ways is a network design improved by the inclusion of IP Event Dampening? (Choose two.)
A. reduces processing load
B. provides sub-second convergence
C. improves network stability
D. prevents routing loops
E. quickly detects network failures
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 3
You are working on a network design plan for a company with approximately 2000 sites. The sites will be connected using the public Internet. You plan to use private IP addressing in the network design, which will be routed without NAT through an encrypted WAN network. Some sites will be connected to the Internet with dynamic public IP addresses, and these addresses may change occasionally.
Which VPN solution will support these design requirements?
A. GET VPN must be used, because DMVPN does not scale to 2000 sites.
B. DMVPN must be used, because GET VPN does not scale to 2000 sites.
C. GET VPN must be used, because private IP addresses cannot be transferred with DMVPN through the public Internet.
D. DMVPN must be used, because private IP addresses cannot be transferred with GET VPN through the public Internet.
E. GET VPN must be used, because DMVPN does not support dynamic IP addresses for some sites.
F. DMVPN must be used, because GET VPN does not support dynamic IP addresses for some sites.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
You have been hired by Acme Corporation to evaluate their existing network and determine if the current network design is secure enough to prevent man-in-the- middle attacks.
When evaluating the network, which switch security option should you investigate to ensure that authorized ARP responses take place according to known IP-to-MAC address mapping?
A. ARP rate limiting
B. DHCP snooping
C. Dynamic ARP Inspections
D. IP Source Guard
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
You are the lead IP/MPLS network designer of a service provider called XYZ. You are leading a design discussion regarding IPv6 implementation in the XYZ MPLS network, using MPLS 6PE/6VPE techniques. 352-001 dumps
Currently, XYZ provides IPv4 multicast services over an MPLS network by using MVPN, and would like to provide parallel IPv6 multicast services.
Which three multicast solutions should be enabled? (Choose three.)
A. native IPv6, only for multicast services
B. MPLS 6PE/6VPE, because it provides IPv6 multicast support by default
C. an overlay model using Layer 2 MPLS tunnels
D. PIM-DM to enable IPv6 multicast in conjunction with MPLS 6PE/6VPE
E. MVPN for IPv6 multicast service
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 6
On a large-scale DMVPN network design, what are two DMVPN characteristics? (Choose two.)
A. DMVPN can interoperate with other vendors’ equipment.
B. DMVPN supports multicast replication at the hub.
C. DMVPN supports non-IP protocols.
D. DMVPN supports dynamic partial- or full-mesh tunnels.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 7
Which statement is correct about route reflector design?
A. Route reflectors should be placed to find the best exit point from the AS.
B. The EIGRP unequal cost, load-balancing characteristic facilitates route reflector placement.
C. Route reflectors should not be placed on the data path
D. Route reflectors help find the closest exits from the AS.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Acme Corporation wants to minimize the risk of users plugging unauthorized switches and hubs into the network. Which two features can be used on the LAN access ports to support this design requirement? (Choose two.)
A. BPDU Guard
B. PortFast
C. Loop Guard
D. Root Guard
E. DTP
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 9
You are a network designer who must fine tune the convergence of an IS-IS network. The failure detection mechanism has been addressed with reliable loss-of-signal at the interface level.
Which three other tools or techniques should be employed to achieve your requirements? (Choose three.)
A. Use prefix prioritization techniques.
B. Use BFD on point-to-point links.
C. Speed up LSP generation.
D. Disable LDP-IGP synchronization.
E. Speed up the initial link state computation.
F. Eliminate the time that the overload bit is advertised to neighbors.
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 10
DRAG DROP
Refer to the exhibit.

Company ACME is adding a Cisco TelePresence system for real-time collaboration and wants to ensure the highest user experience. Drag and drop the necessary QoS mechanisms from the left to the right in any order. Not all options will be used.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 11
When a design calls for spanning VLANs across a campus network, what are two issues that need to be addressed in the design?
(Choose two.) 352-001 dumps
A. network convergence
B. network accessibility
C. fault isolation
D. application scalability
E. user experience
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 12
What is a key role for the access layer in a hierarchical network design?
A. The access layer provides a security, QoS, and policy trust boundary.
B. The access layer provides an aggregation point for services and applications.
C. The access layer serves as a distribution point for services and applications.
D. The access layer can be used to aggregate remote users.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Your company is designing a service provider network management solution in which customers are billed for 95th percentile network utilization. The service provider requires that an IETF standard be utilized to collect the data.
Which method should be used to collect the data?
A. IPFIX
B. NETFLOW
C. RMON
D. IPFLOW
E. NBAR
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
You are designing a solution to eliminate the risk of high CPU utilization on a core network composed of CRS-1 devices.
Which option would eliminate the risk of high CPU utilization across the network?
A. Use Local Packet Transport Services (LPTS) to manage hardware SNMP flow rate.
B. Use the in-band control plane policy feature to reduce the SNMP flow rate.
C. Use the control plane policy feature and reduce SNMP flow rate.
D. Use control-plane management-plane in-band and reduce the SNMP flow rate.
E. Use the control-plane management-plane out-of-band feature to reduce the SNMP flow rate.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
When a multiprotocol environment is designed to have several routers redistribute among the routing domains, how can routing loops be avoided?
A. by using the AS-PATH attribute
B. by using route tags
C. by activating split horizon
D. by implementing spanning tree
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
You work for a large company that has just acquired another smaller company. You have been asked to lead a group of SAN experts from both companies to design the integration plan that will be used to interconnect the SANs and migrate the data from the newly acquired company to the main storage arrays.
The first thing that the team discovers is that the two SANs have the same domain IDs.
As the SAN team lead, what would you advise your team to do so that you can interconnect the two SANs while minimizing disruption?
A. Use FCIP with Write Acceleration and IVR version 1 with a transit VSAN to expedite the data transfer between the two SANs.
B. Change the domain IDs on both SANs so that they are both unique and then connect ISLs between the SANs.
C. Use IVR NAT with a transit VSAN between the SANs.
D. The two SANs cannot be merged without disruption.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
You are tasked with implementing a 1000-phone remote access solution, where phone calls will traverse a WAN edge router. 352-001 dumps Assuming all of the following features are supported in a hardware- assisted manner, which of the following will have the most negative impact on the delay of the packet?
A. encryption
B. stateful firewall
C. MPLS encapsulation
D. GRE encapsulation
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Acme Corporation wants to minimize the risk of users plugging unauthorized switches and hubs into the network.
Which two features can be used on the LAN access ports to support this design requirement? (Choose two.)
A. BPDU Guard
B. PortFast
C. Loop Guard
D. Port Security
E. UDLD
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 19
There is an MPLS-enabled link constantly flapping on an MPLS VPN network.
Given that the network runs OSPF as the IGP protocol, which design mechanism will stabilize the network and avoid constant reconvergences?
A. BFD
B. IP Event Dampening
C. OSPF fast hellos
D. partial SPF
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
A Service Provider network designer is considering the use of the G.8032 Ethernet Ring Protection mechanism in order to provide resiliency in the network.
Which three concepts will be supported with the implementation G.8032? (Choose three.)
A. Ring Protection Link (RPL)
B. Ring Automatic Protection Switching (R-APS)
C. Multi-Router Automatic Protection Switching (MR-APS)
D. Automatic Protection Switching (APS) Channel
Correct Answer: ABD

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QUESTION 1
A null modem cable uses which adapter type?
A. RJ-11
B. RJ-45
C. RS-323
D. RS-232
E. USB
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
TFTP is a simple protocol files, such as a Cisco IOS or configuration file, from one device to another.
Which device cannot be configured to be used as a TFTP server?
A. Cisco router
B. Cisco switch
C. Computer
D. Modem
E. Cisco wireless LAN
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which command sends an echo request packet to the largest host and then waits for an echo response message?
A. telnet
B. connect
C. access
D. echo
E. ping
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 4
Which two of the following statements are true about a switch? 640-692 dumps (Choose two)
A. It is a repeater.
B. It is a data link layer device.
C. It will forward the frame out all ports when it receives a broadcast from a host.
D. It reads the destination MAC address to forward traffic out the appropriate port.
E. It acts as an amplifier.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 5
Which of the following best describes the cable that is used to connect a laptop to an Ethernet port on a Cisco router?
A. Crossover
B. Straight-through
C. Fiber
D. Rollover
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.

Into which port do you insert the card?
A. ATM
B. Gigabit Ethernet
C. Serial
D. Ethernet
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which layer of the IOS model defines how data is formatted for transmission and how access to the physical media is controlled?
A. Physical
B. Data link
C. Network
D. Transport
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which three of the following statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. Each IP address has two parts: a network ID and a host ID
B. An IP subnet equals a broadcast domain.
C. An IPv4 address contains 36 bits
D. 172.16.1.18 is a Class A address
E. A subnet address is created by borrowing bits from the original host ID
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 9
Which of the following is a DTE device? 640-692 dumps
A. router
B. CSU/DSU
C. cable modem
D. DSL modem
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which type if memory is used to permanently store the Cisco IOS software?
A. Flash
B. DRAM
C. SRAM
D. NVRAM
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which router can be used for disk-in-access to the router CLI management purposes and does not usually pass normal network traffic?
A. AUX
B. Gigabit Ethernet
C. Fast Ethernet
D. Channelized serial
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which two pieces of information does the show ip interface brief command display? (Choose two)
A. Encapsulation type
B. Interface status
C. Layer 2 address
D. Layer 3 address
E. Keep alive
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 13
What is the default operating mode you are initially logging into a router?
A. global configuration
B. privileged EXEC
C. ROM monitor
D. user EXEC
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Which two of the following are component of WAN connection? 640-692 dumps (Choose two)
A. router
B. switch
C. CSU/DSU
D. Hub
E. Bridge
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 15
What are two features that are associated with single-mode fiber-optic cable? (Choose two.)
A. a single strand of glass fiber
B. carries higher bandwidth than multimode fiber
C. cost is less than multimode fiber
D. operates over less distance than multimode fiber
Correct Answer: AB

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QUESTION 1
Which address type does a switch use to make selective forwarding decisions?
A. Source IP address
B. Destination IP address
C. Source and destination IP address
D. Source MAC address
E. Destination MAC address
Correct Answer: E

Explanation:
Switches analyze the destination MAC to make its forwarding decision since it is a layer 2 device. Routers use the destination IP address to make forwarding decisions.

QUESTION 2
Which two VLANs are reserved for system use only? (Choose two)
A. 1
B. 4095
C. 4096
D. 0
E. 1001
Correct Answer: BD

Explanation:
The VLANs 0 and 4095 are reserved by the IEEE 802.1Q standard and you cannot create, delete, or modify them so they are the correct answers.
Note:
+

QUESTION 3
SW-C has just been added to the network shown in the graphic 100-105 dumps

What is the purpose of assigning a default gateway to this switch?
A. allows connectivity to Router B from the switch prompt
B. allows console port connectivity to the switch from Host A
C. allows connectivity to remote network devices from Host B
D. allows the switch to pass traffic between Host A and Host B
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4



What is the bandwidth on the WAN interface of Router 1?
A. 16 Kbit/sec
B. 32 Kbit/sec
C. 64 Kbit/sec
D. 128 Kbit/sec
E. 512 Kbit/sec
F. 1544 Kbit/sec
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
Use the andquot;show interface s0/0andquot; to see the bandwidth set at 16 Kbit/sec. The show interface s0/0 command results will look something like this and the bandwidth will be represented by this.

QUESTION 5
Which of the following describe the process identifier that is used to run OSPF on a router? (Choose two)
A. It is locally significant.
B. It is globally significant.
C. It is needed to identify a unique instance of an OSPF database.
D. It is an optional parameter required only if multiple OSPF processes are running on the router.
E. All routers in the same OSPF area must have the same process ID if they are to exchange routing information.
Correct Answer: AC

Explanation:
They are locally significant only, and have no bearing on the structure of any OSPF packet or LSA update.

QUESTION 6
Which statements are true regarding ICMP packets? (Choose two.)
A. They acknowledge receipt of TCP segments.
B. They guarantee datagram delivery.
C. TRACERT uses ICMP packets.
D. They are encapsulated within IP datagrams.
E. They are encapsulated within UDP datagrams.
Correct Answer: CD

Explanation:
Ping may be used to find out whether the local machines are connected to the network or whether a remote site is reachable. This tool is a common network tool for determining the network connectivi 100-105 dumps

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.

Which two statements are true about the loopback address that is configured on RouterB? (Choose two.)
A. It ensures that data will be forwarded by RouterB.
B. It provides stability for the OSPF process on RouterB.
C. It specifies that the router ID for RouterB should be 10.0.0.1.
D. It decreases the metric for routes that are advertised from RouterB.
E. It indicates that RouterB should be elected the DR for the LAN.
Correct Answer: BC

Explanation:
A loopback interface never comes down even if the link is broken so it provides stability for the OSPF process (for example we use that loopback interface as the router-id) – The router-ID is chose

QUESTION 8
Scenario:
You are a junior network engineer for a financial company, and the main office network is experiencing network issues. Troubleshoot the network issues.
Router R1 connects the main office to the internet, and routers R2 and R3 are internal routers.
NAT is enabled on router R1.
The routing protocol that is enabled between routers R1, R2 and R3 is RIPv2.
R1 sends the default route into RIPv2 for the internal routers to forward internet traffic to R1.
You have console access on R1, R2 and R3 devices. Use only show commands to troubleshoot the issues.



Users complain that they are unable to reach internet sites. You are troubleshooting internet connectivity problem at main office. Which statement correctly identifies the problem on Router R1?
A. Interesting traffic for NAT ACL is incorrectly configured.
B. NAT configurations on the interfaces are incorrectly configured
C. NAT translation statement incorrectly configured.
D. Only static NAT translation configured for the server, missing Dynamic NAT or Dynamic NAT overloading for internal networks.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.

The MAC address table is shown in its entirety. The Ethernet frame that is shown arrives at the switch.
What two operations will the switch perform when it receives this frame? (Choose two.)
A. The switch will not forward a frame with this destination MAC address.
B. The MAC address of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be added to the MAC Address Table.
C. The MAC address of ffff.ffff.ffff will be added to the MAC address table.
D. The frame will be forwarded out of all the active switch ports except for port fa0/0.
E. The frame will be forwarded out of fa0/0 and fa0/1 only.
F. The frame will be forwarded out of all the ports on the switch.
Correct Answer: BD

Explanation:
If the switch already has the MAC address in its table for the destination, it will forward the frame directly to the
destination port.

QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.

The network is converged.After link-state advertisements are received from Router_A, what information will Router_E contain in its routing table for the subnets 208.149.23.64 and 208.149.23.96?
A. 208.149.23.64[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:07, FastEthemet0/0 208.149.23.96[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthemet0/0
B. 208.149.23.64[110/1] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial1/0 208.149.23.96[110/3] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthemet0/0
C. 208.149.23.64[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial1/0 208.149.23.96[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, Serial1/0 208.149.23.96[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthemet0/0
D. 208.149.23.64[110/3] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial1/0 208.149.23.96[110/3] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, Serial1/0
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
Router_E learns two subnets subnets 208.149.23.64 and 208.149.23.96 via Router_A through FastEthernet interface. The interface cost is calculated with the formula 108 / Bandwidth.

QUESTION 11
Why would a network administrator configure port security on a switch?
A. to prevent unauthorized Telnet access to a switch port
B. to prevent unauthorized hosts from accessing the LAN
C. to limit the number of Layer 2 broadcasts on a particular switch port
D. block unauthorized access to the switch management interfaces
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which statements are TRUE regarding Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6) addresses? 100-105 dumps (Choose three.)
A. An IPv6 address is divided into eight 16-bit groups.
B. A double colon (::) can only be used once in a single IPv6 address.
C. IPv6 addresses are 196 bits in length.
D. Leading zeros cannot be omitted in an IPv6 address.
E. Groups with a value of 0 can be represented with a single 0 in IPv6 address.
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 13
Which two of these statements are true of IPv6 address representation? (Choose two.)
A. There are four types of IPv6 addresses: unicast, multicast, anycast, and broadcast.
B. A single interface may be assigned multiple IPv6 addresses of any type.
C. Every IPv6 interface contains at least one loopback address.
D. The first 64 bits represent the dynamically created interface ID.
E. Leading zeros in an IPv6 16 bit hexadecimal field are mandatory.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 14
The command ip route 192.168.100.160 255.255.255.224 192.168.10.2 was issued on a router. No routing protocols or other static routes are configured on the router. Which statement is true about this command?
A. The interface with IP address 192.168.10.2 is on this router.
B. The command sets a gateway of last resort for the router.
C. Packets that are destined for host 192.168.100.160 will be sent to 192.168.10.2.
D. The command creates a static route for all IP traffic with the source address 192.168.100.160.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
Some routers have been configured with default routes. What are some of the advantages of using default routes? (Choose two)
A. They establish routes that will never go down.
B. They keep routing tables small.
C. They require a great deal of CPU power.
D. They allow connectivity to remote networks that are not in the routing table
E. They direct traffic from the internet into corporate networks.
Correct Answer: BD

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QUESTION 1
You are developing a messaging solution to integrate two applications named WeatherSummary and WeatherDetails. The WeatherSummary application displays a summary of weather information for major cities. The WeatherDetails application displays weather details for a specific city.
You need to ensure that the WeatherDetails application displays the weather details for the city that the user selects in the WeatherSummary application.
What should you do?
A. Create an Azure Service Bus Queue communication. In the WeatherDetails application, implement the PeekLock method.
B. Create an Azure Service Bus Topics object. In the WeatherDetails application, create a filter.
C. Create an Azure Service Bus Relay object. In the WeatherDetails application, create a filter.
D. Create an Azure Service Bus Queue communication. In the WeatherDetails application, implement the ReceiveAndDelete method.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
You are maintaining an application that uses the Azure Content Delivery Network (CDN) to serve terabytes of content that is stored in page blobs.
Your bill for CDN services is higher than you expect.
You need to monitor the application to find issues that increase costs.
Which two operations should you monitor? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. The Time-To-Live (TTL) of the blobs.
B. The country of origin for the client computer and the CDN region.
C. The number of requests that result in an HTTP status code over 400.
D. The allocated size of page blobs.
E. The expiration date of the blobs.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 3
You deploy an application as a cloud service in Azure.
The application consists of five instances of a web role.
You need to move the web role instances to a different subnet.
Which file should you update?
A. Service definition
B. Diagnostics configuration
C. Service configuration
D. Network configuration
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
You are deploying the web-based solution in the West Europe region.
You need to copy the repository of existing works that the plagiarism detection service uses. You must achieve this goal by using the least amount of time. 70-532 dumps
What should you do?
A. Copy the files from the source file share to a local hard disk. Ship the hard disk to the West Europe data center by using the Azure Import/Export service.
B. Create an Azure virtual network to connect to the West Europe region. Then use Robocopy to copy the files from the current region to the West Europe region.
C. Provide access to the blobs by using the Microsoft Azure Content Delivery Network (CDN). Modify the plagiarism detection service so that the files from the repository are loaded from the CDN.
D. Use the Asynchronous Blob Copy API to copy the blobs from the source storage account to a storage account in the West Europe region.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
You are developing a web application that integrates with Azure Active Directory (AD). The application uses the OAuth 2.0 protocol to authorize secure connections to a web service that is at https://service.adatum.com.
The application must request an access token to invoke the web service methods.
You need to submit an HTTP request to the Azure AD endpoint.
How should you complete the request? To answer, drag the appropriate code segments to the correct locations. Each code segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 6
You need to choose an Azure storage service solution.
Which solution should you choose?
A. Queue storage
B. Blob storage
C. File storage
D. Table storage
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
A company maintains an Azure storage account. The storage account uses blobs and tables.
Customers access the storage account by using shared access signatures (SASs).
You need to monitor the usage of the storage services. You need to do the following:
– Understand which storage areas perform operations that incur a fee.
– Understand which requests are denied because of insufficient permissions.
– Validate that the performance of the storage account meets the service level agreement (SLA) for the Azure Storage service.
Which three data analysis tasks should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Use data from the logs of the storage services to find individual storage access attempts that do not comply with the SLA.
B. Use data from the logs of the storage services to calculate aggregate server latency across individual requests. Determine whether the results of this calculation indicate that the Azure Storage service is in compliance with the SLA.
C. Analyze the logs of the storage services to determine which storage services were inaccessible because of permissions issues.
D. Review the Azure documentation to determine which storage operations are billable. Then find records of those operations in the logs of the storage services.
E. Analyze the logs of the storage services to find records of operations that are marked as billable.
F. Correlate the data logged from the storage service with the permissions to store data in the individual blobs and containers. Determine which storage services were inaccessible because of permissions issues.
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 8
You deploy a new version of a cloud-service application to a staging slot. The application consists of one web role. You prepare to swap the new version of the application into the production slot. Your Azure account has access to multiple Azure subscriptions. You load the Azure PowerShell cmdlets into the Windows PowerShell command shell. The command shell is NOT configured for certificate-based authentication. 70-532 dumps
You must use the Windows PowerShell command window to configure the application.
You need to create five instances of the web role.
How should you configure the relevant Windows PowerShell script? To answer, select the appropriate option or options in the answer area.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 9
You update the portion of the website that contains biographical information about students. You need to provide data for testing the updates to the website.
Which approach should you use?
A. Use SQL Server data synchronization.
B. Use the Active Geo-Replication feature of Azure SQL Database.
C. Use SQL Replication.
D. Use the Geo-Replication feature of Azure Storage.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
You need to implement data storage for patient information.
What should you do?
A. Use the Update Entity operation of the Table Service REST API.
B. Use the Put Blob operation of the Blob Service REST API.
C. Use the Put Message operation of the Create Queue REST API.
D. Use the Set Share Metadata operation of the File Service REST API.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
The website does not receive alerts quickly enough.
You need to resolve the issue.
What should you do?
A. Enable automatic scaling for the website.
B. Manually Increase the instance count for the worker role.
C. Increase the amount of swap memory for the VM instance.
D. Set the monitoring level to Verbose for the worker role.
E. Enable automatic scaling for the worker role.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
You need to configure role instances.
Which size should you specify for the VM?
A. Use Small for Off-Peak mode.
B. Use Large for On-Peak mode.
C. Use Extra Large for On-Peak mode.
D. Use Extra Small for Off-Peak mode.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Your network contains a Hyper-V host named Server1 that hosts 20 virtual machines. 70-532 dumps
You need to view the amount of memory resources and processor resources each virtual machine uses currently.
Which tool should you use on Server1?
A. Resource Monitor
B. Task Manager
C. Hyper-V Manager
D. Windows System Resource Manager (WSRM)
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
Users report that after periods of inactivity the website is slow to render pages and to process sign-in attempts.
You need to ensure that the website is always responsive.
What should you do?
A. Add the following markup at line WC14:
<sessionState timeout-“86400″ />
B. Add the following markup at line WC08:
<add key=”timeout” value=”null” />
C. Add the following markup at line WC14:
<sessionState timeout=”fl” />
D. In the Azure management portal, enable Always On support for the website.
E. In the Azure management portal, disable Always On support for the website.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
You store data in an Azure blob. Data accumulates at a rate of 0.10 GB per day.
You must use storage analytics data to verify that the service level agreement (SLA) has been met and to analyze the performance of VHDs, including the pattern of usage.
Analytics data must be deleted when it is older than 100 days or when the total amount of data exceeds 10 GB.
You need to configure storage analytics and access the storage analytics data.
Which two approaches will achieve the goal? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Disable the data retention policy.
B. Access analytics data by using the Service Management REST APL
C. Access analytics data by using the APIs used to read blob and table data.
D. Configure a data retention policy of 100 days.
Correct Answer: CD

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